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Present perfect /present perfect continou

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30 messages over 4 pages: 1 2 3
Cavesa
Triglot
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 Message 25 of 30
29 January 2014 at 6:03pm | IP Logged 
My point of view is based on lots of reading and listening and communication with the natives, on learning the british grammar and observing both as much as I can. But I am not a native speaker.
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patrickwilken
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 Message 26 of 30
29 January 2014 at 6:56pm | IP Logged 
What about something more topical at least for me:

1. It has snowed in Berlin for a long time.
2. It has been snowing in Berlin for a long time.

The first suggests that it snows regularly in Berlin, and that this was (perhaps) different at some previous time. Perhaps snow is now a regular occurrence in winter.

The second could be interpreted in the same way as the first, but perhaps more naturally to mean that it is currently snowing, and it has been snowing continuously for a long time.

Edited by patrickwilken on 29 January 2014 at 6:56pm

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ScottScheule
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 Message 27 of 30
29 January 2014 at 7:01pm | IP Logged 
Patrick,

I agree almost entirely. I would only quibble with "more naturally," since both meanings of the second sentence seem natural to me, depending on context.
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patrickwilken
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 Message 28 of 30
29 January 2014 at 7:12pm | IP Logged 
ScottScheule wrote:

I agree almost entirely. I would only quibble with "more naturally," since both meanings of the second sentence seem natural to me, depending on context.


I think if it's a question of emphasis. If I wanted to imply the first meaning, I would use the first phrasing myself. If I wanted to emphasize the continuous and current nature of the snow I would use the second wording.

But I am sure what appears natural depends a lot on what usage you have been exposed to.

I think the "has snowed" implies an event that is temporally self-contained, and the "for a long time" suggests that this event has occurred multiple times over a long time period; whereas "has been snowing" doesn't have that self-contained implication temporally (i.e., it could continue to snow without end), and the "for a long time" is directed at this single event.

So not only does "has snowed" vs "has been snowing" have different meanings, but these phrases change the implications/meaning of "for a long time" in their respective sentences.

Edited by patrickwilken on 29 January 2014 at 7:30pm

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tastyonions
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 Message 29 of 30
30 January 2014 at 10:28am | IP Logged 
One strange thing is that the sentence "I have worked in London for a long time" sounds significantly better to me if I append the word "now": "I have worked in London for a long time now."
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patrickwilken
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 Message 30 of 30
30 January 2014 at 1:03pm | IP Logged 
tastyonions wrote:
One strange thing is that the sentence "I have worked in London for a long time" sounds significantly better to me if I append the word "now": "I have worked in London for a long time now."


The difference between "had worked" and "has been working" constructions is that the first emphasizes time, and the second the process - so 'now' reemphasizes and fits with the temporal aspect.

You can see this more clearly in the negations:

1. It has NOT snowed in Berlin for a long time. (TIME emphasized)
2. It has NOT been snowing in Berlin for a long time. (SNOWING emphasized)

OR

1. He has NOT worked in London for a long time. (TIME emphasized)
2. He has NOT been working in London for a long time. (WORK emphasized)

Number 1, suggests he used to work in London, but hasn't for a long time. The "not" negates "worked".

Number 2, is a bit more ambiguous, but I would generally read it as having the opposite meaning, that he has only recently started working in London. Here the "not" negates the temporal aspect of the working (i.e., the "long time"), and so implies he has only worked a "short time".

Edited by patrickwilken on 30 January 2014 at 1:13pm



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