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didaskolos Newbie United States Joined 6844 days ago 10 posts - 46 votes Speaks: English* Studies: German, Ancient Greek, Modern Hebrew, Sign Language, Mandarin
| Message 41 of 53 01 April 2010 at 5:36am | IP Logged |
dmaddock1 wrote:
Interesting thoughts didaskolos. I sampled a bunch of different audio sources online and only found a few that seemed to me to have a natural rhythm. Also, the variation in pronunciation is a nightmare for beginning students. I was really excited to find Stephen Daitz's recordings but the pitch accents are just bizarre. Is the market for original language audio outside of religious texts so small that no one else has bothered to record Homer with an Erasmian pronunciation? Have you been able to find suitable audio for Greek L-R outside of the GNT?
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I can't say that I have looked very hard for more audio. With about 25 hours of GNT audio, I've got enough to keep me occupied for awhile. :)
I haven't found much Erasmian based material outside of NT readings. I have some vague recollections of finding some limited readings in an Erasmian style on a classical studies web site somewhere.
Librivox.org has a few audios. The person reading the Apology of Socrates appears to be using some type of reconstructed accent. Based on his accent while reading of the Librivox boilerplate at the beginning, I am assuming he is a native Greek speaker using a tonal accent and a more classical pronunciation for his readings. It sounds more natural than the Daitz recordings.
I would guess that modern Greek pronunciation audio books of classical Greek works might be available somewhere in Greece (or other contemporary Greek speaking areas). Few people bother to read Shakespeare or Chaucer in the appropriate English pronunciation. Most English speakers just read such materials aloud in their natural accent. I'd guess the same might be true for original language Greek classics.
One observation I've made is that I can usually adapt to listening to Erasmian audio after a few minutes. There is usually an initial shock to my ears for a brief time. Then it basically sounds sort of like a thick accent to me when listening, but is usually understandable. I would guess that even if you are learning with an Erasmian pronunciation, you could probably adjust to listening to a modern or reconstructed accent. This might work for you if you are listening to the same sections more than one time and following along with a text.
Also, I would like to emphasize that I would only place my Greek skills at an intermediate level. I am by no means a fluent reader or expert. The approach of using LR and Greek/English parallel and interlinear texts seems to follow the methods of some of the more successful language learners on this forum and has been working well for me. I think becoming a fluent reader is possible for me over the next few years if I keep at it.
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| Smart Tetraglot Senior Member United States Joined 5341 days ago 352 posts - 398 votes Speaks: Spanish, English*, Latin, French Studies: German
| Message 42 of 53 20 April 2010 at 7:16am | IP Logged |
Starting with Abraham, he spoke Hebrew.
Joseph would have known Hebrew and Egyptian.
Moses was taught Hebrew, Akkadian and Egyptian in the Pharaoh's court.
All the Tanakh people spoke Hebrew, even while in exile.
Esther might have spoken in Aramaic because she was in Persia.
As for Yeshua and the Apostles, they would have had a knowledge of Greek by default, Yeshua was fluent in Hebrew and Aramaic, his disciples probably were as well.
Paul on the other hand, likely knew Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek and maybe Latin.
We know that the Church Fathers were mostly Greek-speakers.
_____
As for the "New Testament", that would be written predominantly in Hebrew. With the obvious exception of Luke and Acts.
Edited by Smart on 20 April 2010 at 7:17am
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| Al-Irelandi Senior Member United Kingdom Joined 5537 days ago 111 posts - 177 votes Speaks: English*
| Message 43 of 53 25 April 2010 at 12:06am | IP Logged |
Arekkusu wrote:
Al-Irelandi wrote:
Arekkusu wrote:
al-Irlandee wrote:
Arekkusu wrote:
human languages were not created. |
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Is this proven somewhere? |
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It can't be. It goes beyond recorded history. But it only makes sense (you don't have to take my word for it and you are free to present a different hypothesis) that as humans' brain capacity increased, a more and more intricate method of communication developed over time, likely over a looong time. Somewhere, we went from no language ability to complex language ability. It had to be gradual. |
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This is something that confuses even Anthropologists. Some challenge them saying that the chances that languages evolved out of primate grunts and bellows, is akin to a computer evolving from silicon and plastic and by chance merging together and forming a '1995 spec' Intel Pentium based PC with 16MB of RAM and a 500MB hard-drive and a dual-speed CD-ROM drive, all over the course of 30 thousand years. |
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What? Sorry, but you can't compare human linguistic evolution to plastic pieces poofing themselves into a computer.
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You have claimed this to be 'my' idea by way of utilising the 2nd person pronoun followed by the words 'can't compare', your first fallacious argument. Yet that was merely something I overheard some of the Anthropologists saying at my place of study, and not an argument I claimed as my own, neither did I allude to myself uttering it nor affirming it.
The second fallacy appears in your earlier post where you argued that in times past, our ancestors' brains had become more advanced in their processing capacities and were 'evolving' or 'evolved', therefore basing your argument on the theory of evolution, which in itself is not a proven fact and cannot be used as an proof for the sake of argument. That is unless the 'theory' of evolution has just 'evolved' into the 'fact' of evolution.
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| dmaddock1 Senior Member United States Joined 5435 days ago 174 posts - 426 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Italian, Esperanto, Latin, Ancient Greek
| Message 44 of 53 25 April 2010 at 1:48am | IP Logged |
Smart wrote:
As for the "New Testament", that would be written predominantly in Hebrew. With the obvious exception of Luke and Acts. |
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Very, very few people hold this opinion. The overwhelming scholarly consensus is that the NT books were written in Greek, though recognizing that there is some evidence of Aramaic source documents being used, particularly in Mark and Matthew.
Al-Irelandi wrote:
Yet that was merely something I overheard some of the Anthropologists saying at my place of study, and not an argument I claimed as my own, neither did I allude to myself uttering it nor affirming it. |
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I'm glad to hear that this isn't your argument. Anthropology 101 begins with evolution and the whole rest of the field is built on it. If you're in the habit of overhearing anthro. conversations then I'm sure you'll hear all about the preponderance of evidence for it. If not, much like the above opinion, your anthropologist friends are very far from the scholarly consensus in their chosen field.
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| Al-Irelandi Senior Member United Kingdom Joined 5537 days ago 111 posts - 177 votes Speaks: English*
| Message 45 of 53 29 April 2010 at 11:59pm | IP Logged |
dmaddock1 wrote:
[QUOTE=Smart]
I'm sure you'll hear all about the preponderance of evidence for it. If not, much like the above opinion, your anthropologist friends are very far from the scholarly consensus in their chosen field. |
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Rather I have heard all about the preponderance of theories for evolution which are classed as being 'generally accepted' but not outright proven. So even if pro-evolution scholars/evolutionists make a consensus which is in itself based on the preponderance of evolutionary theories, that doesn't automatically allow the mass number off theories to mutate and evolve into facts.
Edited by Al-Irelandi on 30 April 2010 at 12:15am
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| luke Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 7207 days ago 3133 posts - 4351 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: Esperanto, French
| Message 46 of 53 29 November 2013 at 6:08pm | IP Logged |
Arekkusu wrote:
The opposite view would be extremely unlikely. Humans would have had to have the
brain capacity for language -- yet, without speaking any language at all -- only to decide all of a sudden, out
of the blue, to create an intricate grammatical system and a vocabulary of a few thousand words that
everyone would have to agree on and that everyone would have to learn. |
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And would that even be possible before Assimil?
Edited by luke on 29 November 2013 at 6:30pm
1 person has voted this message useful
| morinkhuur Triglot Groupie Germany Joined 4679 days ago 79 posts - 157 votes Speaks: German*, Latin, English Studies: Spanish, Arabic (Written), Arabic (Egyptian), Arabic (Maghribi)
| Message 47 of 53 01 December 2013 at 2:19pm | IP Logged |
Al-Irelandi wrote:
Arekkusu wrote:
Al-Irelandi wrote:
Arekkusu wrote:
al-Irlandee wrote:
Arekkusu wrote:
human languages were not created. |
|
|
Is this proven somewhere? |
|
|
It can't be. It goes beyond recorded history. But it only makes sense (you don't have to take my word for it
and you are free to present a different hypothesis) that as humans' brain capacity increased, a more and
more intricate method of communication developed over time, likely over a looong time. Somewhere, we
went from no language ability to complex language ability. It had to be gradual. |
|
|
This is something that confuses even Anthropologists. Some challenge them saying that the chances that
languages evolved out of primate grunts and bellows, is akin to a computer evolving from silicon and plastic
and by chance merging together and forming a '1995 spec' Intel Pentium based PC with 16MB of RAM and a
500MB hard-drive and a dual-speed CD-ROM drive, all over the course of 30 thousand years. |
|
|
What? Sorry, but you can't compare human linguistic evolution to plastic pieces poofing themselves into a
computer.
|
|
|
You have claimed this to be 'my' idea by way of utilising the 2nd person pronoun followed by the words 'can't
compare', your first fallacious argument. Yet that was merely something I overheard some of the
Anthropologists saying at my place of study, and not an argument I claimed as my own, neither did I allude to
myself uttering it nor affirming it.
The second fallacy appears in your earlier post where you argued that in times past, our ancestors' brains
had become more advanced in their processing capacities and were 'evolving' or 'evolved', therefore basing
your argument on the theory of evolution, which in itself is not a proven fact and cannot be used as an proof
for the sake of argument. That is unless the 'theory' of evolution has just 'evolved' into the 'fact' of evolution.
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And there goes the thread...
1 person has voted this message useful
| Medulin Tetraglot Senior Member Croatia Joined 4670 days ago 1199 posts - 2192 votes Speaks: Croatian*, English, Spanish, Portuguese Studies: Norwegian, Hindi, Nepali
| Message 48 of 53 01 December 2013 at 4:34pm | IP Logged |
I think he spoke Hebrew.
1 person has voted this message useful
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