19 messages over 3 pages: 1 2 3
Doitsujin Diglot Senior Member Germany Joined 5305 days ago 1256 posts - 2363 votes Speaks: German*, English
| Message 17 of 19 24 January 2014 at 7:19pm | IP Logged |
Medulin wrote:
Doitsujin wrote:
The IPP (infinitivus pro participi), which is better known as Ersatzinfinitiv in German, is nowadays a relatively rare construction |
|
|
Except in Austria and Bavaria. |
|
|
Bavarian German and Austrian German have some grammar features not found in elsewhere in Germany and/or Hochdeutsch. The example, that you quoted:
Quote:
(i) dass er sie nicht fragen können/müssen/lassen hätte |
|
|
would most likely be rendered elsewhere in Germany as:
... das er sie nicht hätte fragen können/müssen/lassen
Bao wrote:
It probably depends on where you are and who you talk to most of the time. |
|
|
It also depends on who you are. If you're an actor, orator, professor or have another job that requires a high degree of eloquence, your friends and co-workers probably know by now that you like to throw in a more complicated expression every now and then and won't have a problem with it.
Other people, however, might find it a bit strange, unless they're grammar geeks themselves.
I occasionally use wrong grammar for comical effect, but I'd never use an overly complicated expression to distance myself from others.
1 person has voted this message useful
| Papashaw1 Newbie Australia Joined 4016 days ago 30 posts - 35 votes
| Message 18 of 19 24 January 2014 at 9:06pm | IP Logged |
I still haven't found out why the different inverted order is used for IPP. Why 1-3-2 order is used just for that and
everything else is 3-2-1.
And I know it is a fallacy to mention this, but Dutch allows both 1-2 and 2-1.
Believe me, I have plenty of questions asking about my own native language, so I am not only focusing on
German's peculiarities.
Still, is there pragmatic reason or is it just the preferred style that evolved from whatever dialect Hochdeutsch is
based on?
Edited by Papashaw1 on 24 January 2014 at 9:10pm
1 person has voted this message useful
| tarvos Super Polyglot Winner TAC 2012 Senior Member China likeapolyglot.wordpr Joined 4692 days ago 5310 posts - 9399 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, Swedish, French, Russian, German, Italian, Norwegian, Mandarin, Romanian, Afrikaans Studies: Greek, Modern Hebrew, Spanish, Portuguese, Czech, Korean, Esperanto, Finnish
| Message 19 of 19 24 January 2014 at 9:35pm | IP Logged |
I don't think there's much of a reason for it, given that a switch in the order doesn't
trigger a change in meaning, at most a change in emphasis depending on speaker intonation
(that is in Dutch). So the fact that this is where German order differentiates itself
from Dutch (which may I just add, is a really small detail of the language), just means
that something happened to stick in German (and some other variant in Bavarian which is
another dialect of course), where it didn't somewhere else, or where other people use
them the way they do.
It's just how it is.
1 person has voted this message useful
|
This discussion contains 19 messages over 3 pages: << Prev 1 2 3 If you wish to post a reply to this topic you must first login. If you are not already registered you must first register
You cannot post new topics in this forum - You cannot reply to topics in this forum - You cannot delete your posts in this forum You cannot edit your posts in this forum - You cannot create polls in this forum - You cannot vote in polls in this forum
This page was generated in 0.3906 seconds.
DHTML Menu By Milonic JavaScript
|