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fué vs fue, fuí vs fui | ||
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 Language Learning Forum : Questions About Your Target Languages |  | |
| fredomirek Tetraglot Senior Member Poland Joined 6924 days ago 265 posts - 264 votes  Speaks: Polish*, EnglishC1, Italian, Spanish Studies: Portuguese, Japanese | Message 1 of 12 01 February 2006 at 9:11am | IP Logged | ||
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I suppose the correct form of "ser/ir" in the past tense is withour accents, right? Because I've searched in Yahoo and on a vast number of Spanish websites there were these words with accents. I'm confused a bit.
Thanks for any explanation. 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| tuffy Triglot Senior Member Netherlands Joined 7052 days ago 1394 posts - 1412 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, German Studies: Spanish | Message 2 of 12 01 February 2006 at 9:47am | IP Logged | ||
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I'm a beginner with Spanish so don't trust anything I say :-)
But I think fue doesn't have an é in either case. I'm not sure about fuí, I think there it is used. I hope others agree, if not lo siento :) Edited by tuffy on 01 February 2006 at 9:48am 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| fredomirek Tetraglot Senior Member Poland Joined 6924 days ago 265 posts - 264 votes Speaks: Polish*, EnglishC1, Italian, Spanish Studies: Portuguese, Japanese | Message 3 of 12 01 February 2006 at 9:54am | IP Logged | ||
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If we are to trust any book for learning Spanish I've got.. there shouldn't be any accents neither in "fue" nor "fui"... but if we look at hundreds of web-sites sometimes they write the accents, and sometimes they don't... strange it is..
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 Hencke Tetraglot Moderator Spain Joined 6912 days ago 2340 posts - 2444 votes Speaks: Swedish*, Finnish, EnglishC2, Spanish Studies: Mandarin Personal Language Map | Message 4 of 12 01 February 2006 at 10:35am | IP Logged | ||
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I think the tendency is to use accents less and less.
When I learned Spanish in the early to mid 70's the books I used had accents both on fué and fuí and I still write them with an accent. I also use an accent with bién, también, often written without these days, and a couple more that slip my mind at the moment. Some older material (early 20th century) even had á with an accent. Apart from indicating stress, sometimes the accent is needed to break up a diphtong into two syllables, eg. leído. For fue it doesn't matter, but in the case of fuí, without the accent it might look like the stress is on the u, like in ruido, rather than i, so it makes sense to have an accent there. Must check the Royal Academy's take on this sometime when I can spare the time. Probably something to be had out there on the net if you hunt around a bit. 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| morprussell Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 7181 days ago 272 posts - 285 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: French | Message 5 of 12 01 February 2006 at 10:41am | IP Logged | ||
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The correct form of "ser/ir" in the preterit tense is without accents. Unfortunately many websites in Spanish are inconsistent when it comes to accents/spelling.
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| frenkeld Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 6961 days ago 2042 posts - 2719 votes Speaks: Russian*, English Studies: German | Message 6 of 12 01 February 2006 at 11:04am | IP Logged | ||
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Before about 1960 these words were accented. A spelling reform, emanating from the Spanish Royal Academy (see Ortografía in the left column to download a pdf file with rules), mostly did away with such accents. You will not see them in books published nowadays, at least I don't believe I have run into any so far. Edited by frenkeld on 01 February 2006 at 11:10am 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| fredomirek Tetraglot Senior Member Poland Joined 6924 days ago 265 posts - 264 votes Speaks: Polish*, EnglishC1, Italian, Spanish Studies: Portuguese, Japanese | Message 7 of 12 01 February 2006 at 11:40am | IP Logged | ||
Thanks all for help! I think I needed this clarification.
I think the accent in "también" is necessary because writing the word without it would change the stress, it would be pronounced "tAmbien" instead of "tambiEn" according to the rules of pronunciation... even if in the word "bien" it doesn't change anything, with "tambien" there would be stress change I suppose. Perhaps I'm wrong, sorry then. 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| Niall Gallagher Groupie Ireland Joined 7153 days ago 81 posts - 81 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish | Message 8 of 12 01 February 2006 at 11:50am | IP Logged | ||
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I think without the accent it's "tam/BI/en", as a Spanish pronunciation rule says that if the last letter of an unaccented word is an n, s, or a vowel, the stress is put on the second last syllable. I remember this by thinking if I'm "Not Sure" of the stress. Edited by Niall Gallagher on 01 February 2006 at 11:51am 1 person has voted this message useful |
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