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fué vs fue, fuí vs fui

  Tags: Punctuation | Accent | Spanish
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12 messages over 2 pages: 1
Guanche
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Spain
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 Message 9 of 12
01 February 2006 at 12:07pm | IP Logged 
It has nothing to do with writing accents less frequently. In fact, accents are as important in Spanish as ever. The reason is a matter of confusion between two orthography rules. The first rule says that any word ending with a stressed vowel should have an accent, and therefore it should be written "fuí" and "fué". However, there's a specific rule for monosyllabic words strictly forbidding accents on them. Many people forget the second rule and apply the first rule to these words, which is incorrect.

Therefore, don't use accents with monosyllabic words (except for those cases where the accent is used to specify a meaning)

Check this site:
http://culturitalia.uibk.ac.at/hispanoteca/Grammatik-Stichwo rte/Gram%C3%A1tica%20espa%C3%B1ola/Ortograf%C3%ADa-Nuevas%20 normas%20desde%201999.htm
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Hencke
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 Message 10 of 12
01 February 2006 at 12:16pm | IP Logged 
fredomirek wrote:
I think the accent in "también" is necessary because writing the word without it would change the stress, it would be pronounced "tAmbien" instead of "tambiEn" according to the rules of pronunciation...

Quite right, I mentioned it without thinking. Nevertheless, you often see it without these days.

And thanks frenkeld for the info and that pointer to the Royal Academy. I had another url for them without the spelling link in it. I must have a look at those rules and mend my ways. Seems I was more than a little behind my times on that one.
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Hencke
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 Message 11 of 12
01 February 2006 at 12:48pm | IP Logged 
Guanche wrote:

Therefore, don't use accents with monosyllabic words (except for those cases where the accent is used to specify a meaning)

Check this site:
http://culturitalia.uibk.ac.at/hispanoteca/Grammatik-Stichwo rte/Gram%C3%A1tica%20espa%C3%B1ola/Ortograf%C3%ADa-Nuevas%20 normas%20desde%201999.htm

Yes, that clarified quite a bit too. Thanks for your input.

But to nitpick a little I wonder if "fuí" could not be defended as one of the special cases mentioned in the rules, where an accent is admissible, if perhaps not the preferred spelling.

"No obstante, en estos casos, la Academia admite que estas palabras se sigan acentuando con arreglo a las normas ortográficas anteriores a 1999, si quien escribe percibe nítidamente el hiato y, en consecuencia, considera estas palabras bisílabas:"

They have fié, huí, riáis etc. as examples, and fuí would seem to fit in that group, right along with huí.

But I am not certain about this. There might be some other factor that disqualifies fui from being included in that group. In either case I'll have to start getting used to writing it without now.

Edited by Hencke on 01 February 2006 at 1:01pm

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Hencke
Tetraglot
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Spain
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Speaks: Swedish*, Finnish, EnglishC2, Spanish
Studies: Mandarin
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 Message 12 of 12
01 February 2006 at 12:54pm | IP Logged 
Niall Gallagher wrote:
I think without the accent it's "tam/BI/en", as a Spanish pronunciation rule says that if the last letter of an unaccented word is an n, s, or a vowel, the stress is put on the second last syllable. I remember this by thinking if I'm "Not Sure" of the stress.

You are right about the rule. But I and E form a diphtong there which makes them only one syllable.


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