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Name a Language That... GAME
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vonPeterhof
Tetraglot
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Message 185 of 306

06 May 2012 at 7:36am | IP Logged

Well, my previous question is still unanswered. Looks like no one wants to answer it, so okay, the answers were Uzbek and Crimean Tatar. Here's the next one:

Name an Indo-European language, other than Welsh, at least one dialect of which has the ɬ sound.

Edited by vonPeterhof on 06 May 2012 at 7:36am
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Josquin
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Message 186 of 306

06 May 2012 at 11:56am | IP Logged

Norwegian (Trønder dialect)

Name an Indo-European language that uses dual pronouns with plural meaning.
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aldous
Diglot
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United States
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Message 187 of 306

06 May 2012 at 11:51pm | IP Logged

Bavarian

Name a dialect of English that has more tenses than the standard dialect.
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clumsy
Octoglot
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Poland
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Speaks: Polish*, English, Japanese, Korean, French, Mandarin, Italian, Vietnamese
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Message 188 of 306

07 May 2012 at 2:59pm | IP Logged

vonPeterhof wrote:

I didn't cancel your question, I answered it! Look above the quote.

And actually, vowel harmony isn't exclusive to Eastern Turkic, it was one of the features of Proto-Turkic and it has survived to varying extents in most modern Turkic languages, (standard) Uzbek being the major exception. The one striking difference from Kazakh that I notice when I try to read Kyrgyz is that it has long vowels (kz "taw" vs kg "too"), and these, AFAIK, don't appear in most "Western" Turkic languages, but do appear in Yakut and Tuvan.

well, I am sorry, actually it would not be bad to cancel my question, it was not my meaning.

but it's laudable, I would though this my question was too hard, as the language is spoken by few thousand of people.
hmm, I have only tried to learn a little of Kyrgyz, and I have read that Kazakhs can understand Kyrgyz people without difficulty.
I hope to study it more in depth as I plan to read peace corps textbook.

and my answer is:

AA English - African American English!

It has more tenses according to Wikipedia.

Name a language that uses an alphabet derived from Greek, but is not spoken in Europe.

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Josquin
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Message 189 of 306

07 May 2012 at 4:48pm | IP Logged

aldous wrote:

Bavarian

Is that true? I don't think Bavarian has dual pronouns. I was thinking of an absolutely different language.

So, the question still stands, but I'll give a hint:

Name an Indo-European language that uses (old) dual pronouns with (new) plural meaning.
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clumsy
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Message 190 of 306

07 May 2012 at 5:36pm | IP Logged

This one is easy, because it's Polish:
oko - > oczy
oczy (eyes) was used to mean 'two eyes', before but it's now used in plural sense (old plural 'oka' is used when talking about oil 'eyes' in soup only)

Name a Turkic language which is spoken by people who practice Judaism.

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Josquin
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Message 191 of 306

07 May 2012 at 7:16pm | IP Logged

clumsy wrote:

No, I was talking about pronouns!

But, as nobody gets it, I'll reveal the answer: It's Icelandic.

The pronouns 'við' (we) and 'þið' (you pl.) used to mean 'we two' and 'you two' in Old Norse, so they were dual. In modern Icelandic, however, they took plural meaning while the old plural pronouns 'vér' and 'þér' became outdated.

Sorry for interrupting the game.
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aldous
Diglot
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Message 192 of 306

07 May 2012 at 8:32pm | IP Logged

Josquin wrote:

aldous wrote:

Bavarian

Is that true? I don't think Bavarian has dual pronouns. I was thinking of an absolutely different language.

This is from the Wikipedia article on the dual number:

Wikipedia wrote:

In Austro-Bavarian, the old dual pronouns have replaced the standard plural pronouns, for example, accusative enk, you plural (from Proto-Germanic *inkw, *inkwiz). A similar development in the pronoun system can be seen in Icelandic and Faroese.

For something more authoritative, here is an extract from a book that I found on Google Books:

Paul Wexler wrote:

In Germanic languages, the dual has left no remains except in the pronoun, see e.g. BavG ös (nom), enk (acc) 'you' and enker 'your', which now have plural function; these pronouns now survive solely in PolY ec, enk, enker, respectively (first attested in 1567: Marchand 1960: 40, fn 5). Prokosch thinks that the Bavarian dual pronouns derive from the Gothic settlement in southern Bavaria (1939: 230), but their present expanse includes Westphalia and the Ruhr region (1939: 40).

from Paul Wexler, Two-tiered relexification in Yiddish: Jews, Sorbs, Khazars, and the Kiev-Polessian dialect (Berlin: Mouton de Gruyter, 2002), p. 452.

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