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Monty Says Something in Welsh

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montmorency
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 Message 49 of 76
15 November 2013 at 8:09pm | IP Logged 
Thanks eyðimörk. Come to think, even American (and sometimes British) English does this
sort of thing, e.g. the "tt" in "little", softening to "dd" -> "liddle".
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Josquin
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 Message 50 of 76
15 November 2013 at 8:44pm | IP Logged 
eyðimörk wrote:
montmorency wrote:
I've been wondering about mutations and why they evolved.
I mean I'm sure they evolved for good reasons, and not just to make life difficult (or
more interesting).

This doesn't necessarily (though maybe) apply to fortition, but lenition and spirant mutations I've always assumed it's a matter of speech fluidity. That's just my theory, though. My Gaelic teacher couldn't explain it and my Breton material doesn't attempt to.

Mutations stem from certain phonological features of Proto-Celtic. The words which today trigger mutations used to have certain endings in Proto-Celtic which affected the pronunciation of the initial sound of the next word.

As time passed by, these endings disappeared due to phonological change, but the pronunciation of the initial sound was kept, so mutations were invented. Today, there seems to be no logical system behind mutations, but the reason why a certain word triggers mutation is the ending it had in Proto-Celtic.

I can only give examples for Irish, but I guess it's similar in Welsh. Lenition appears after a word which had a vocalic ending, while eclipsis is triggered by words which had a nasal consonant as ending.

That explains the insane Irish counting system, where the numbers from 1 to 6 trigger lenition while 7-10 trigger eclipsis. I believe there are similar phenomena in Welsh (I remember something about the number 5), but I don't know about Breton.
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eyðimörk
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 Message 51 of 76
15 November 2013 at 11:47pm | IP Logged 
Josquin wrote:
Mutations stem from certain phonological features of Proto-Celtic. The words which today trigger mutations used to have certain endings in Proto-Celtic which affected the pronunciation of the initial sound of the next word.

That's very interesting! Thank you for that!

It doesn't explain WHY there are mutations, though, only at what time they developed* and why they follow certain words and not others.

Josquin wrote:
That explains the insane Irish counting system, where the numbers from 1 to 6 trigger lenition while 7-10 trigger eclipsis. I believe there are similar phenomena in Welsh (I remember something about the number 5), but I don't know about Breton.

In Breton number 2 triggers lenition and numbers 3, 4, and 9 trigger a spirant mutation, so there are certainly similarities there. Gaelic, as I recall, mutates after 1 and 2... maybe there were more? There are no doubt people here who've studied the language to a much greater extent and much more recently than I have, who might be able to enlighten us.


* which is presumably why many are similar across the board — both Gaelic and Breton, for example, mutate after "a" and "ro" (Gaelic) or "re" (Breton), as well as after a negative particle, from what little I recall from Gaelic class.
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tarvos
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 Message 52 of 76
16 November 2013 at 12:29am | IP Logged 
About the spirant mutation:

It is a common phonological process that sounds weaken in intervocalic positions. In
Korean, voicing is not distinctive (aspiration is) but in intervocalic position stops
become voiced (k/t/p/ch become b/d/g/j).

In Dutch, intervocalic d in words is eliminated in speech and only retained in old
archaic texts (weder = weer, veder = veer, neder = neer)

In other languages consonants lenite even further to fricatives (this is the spirant
mutation in Breton as well with k becoming c'h, p becoming f and t becoming z, although
the latter is strange because it somehow also activates voicing - but I think
originally t became a th sound, a dental fricative, but since Breton doesn't use those
it turned to a z somehow (although you would expect an s).

B, d, g can similarly lenite to v, voiced th, and voiced /x/. I think Spanish has this
under certain circumstances.
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jeff_lindqvist
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 Message 53 of 76
16 November 2013 at 1:02am | IP Logged 
tarvos wrote:
B, d, g can similarly lenite to v, voiced th, and voiced /x/. I think Spanish has this under certain circumstances.


Yeah, that's how I pronounce the sounds in intervocalic positions. Maybe not a v for b, but definitely voiced /th/ and /x/. It's easier, and that's why we have assimilation, mutations etc. The other day, I realized that I lenited m- in my native Swedish.
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tarvos
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 Message 54 of 76
16 November 2013 at 11:36am | IP Logged 
I don't think the sound is /v/ in Spanish but an approximant instead. But it goes in that
direction.

Edited by tarvos on 16 November 2013 at 11:37am

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Josquin
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 Message 55 of 76
16 November 2013 at 1:27pm | IP Logged 
eyðimörk wrote:
Josquin wrote:
Mutations stem from certain phonological features of Proto-Celtic. The words which today trigger mutations used to have certain endings in Proto-Celtic which affected the pronunciation of the initial sound of the next word.

That's very interesting! Thank you for that!

It doesn't explain WHY there are mutations, though, only at what time they developed* and why they follow certain words and not others.

As tarvos pointed out, the intervocalic consonants turned from stops into fricatives, so that's the reason why lenition evolved. It was just a phonological feature of Proto-Celtic. Similarly, a nasal consonant could affect the following sound and "eclipse" it. When the nasal consonant was lost, only the eclipsed sound remained.

By the way, the accurate symbol for the fricative b in Spanish is /β/.
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eyðimörk
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 Message 56 of 76
16 November 2013 at 1:59pm | IP Logged 
Josquin wrote:
As tarvos pointed out, the intervocalic consonants turned from stops into fricatives, so that's the reason why lenition evolved. It was just a phonological feature of Proto-Celtic. Similarly, a nasal consonant could affect the following sound and "eclipse" it. When the nasal consonant was lost, only the eclipsed sound remained.

That's very fascinating. It still deals only with the hows and not the whys. I don't expect you (or anyone) to know the whys (since we're already tracing the hows to a theoretical proto-language). I'm just saying that "it's a feature of the language" or "there is lenition because there was lenition" is a how and not a why.


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