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You are not a real polyglot if...

  Tags: Polyglot
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Belardur
Octoglot
Senior Member
Germany
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148 posts - 195 votes 
Speaks: English*, GermanC2, Spanish, Dutch, Latin, Ancient Greek, French, Lowland Scots
Studies: Biblical Hebrew, Italian, Arabic (Written), Mandarin, Korean

 
 Message 105 of 299
18 October 2013 at 2:58pm | IP Logged 
Chung wrote:
Belardur wrote:
I've hesitated to chime in, but I'm going to have to come down on the side that mutual intelligibility, even to an extremely high degree, does not constitute language identity. I can't say much about similarity in the Scandinavian languages, or about those of the former Yugoslavia, but I would make this claim based on German languages.

When spoken without too much influence from Standard (German) German, as I think Iversen has pointed out, Platt is definitely a different language (funny story, I have a friend who grew up speaking it, and if I overhear him, I understand it as Dutch for the first 30 seconds or so).

Where I can really make my point is going to be regarding the languages spoken at the south end of the continuum of "German", specifically Bairisch (Austro-Bavarian) and Schwäbisch. I can understand and get by in both middle and upper Bavarian, though when I speak it, it gets a lot of influence, I don't know the unique words for everything.
Swabian, though...there has been an interesting movement to get a standard orthography, and at this point I think it would be hard for an objective observer to doubt the independence of the language. There's even a Bible translation into Schwäbisch from the original texts, without relying on "standard German" assistance. The language, a dialect of Alemannian, is quite alive, spoken to a high level by quite a few diglots who still need "standard German" for education and professional life. The orthography is also different.

Both of these have active initiatives to protect and encourage the development of the langages.
Links for the interested, in German:
Förderverein Bayerische Sprache und Dialekte
Schwäbisch schwätza
Schwäbische Kirch

The respective Wikipedia articles are also helpful:
Schwäbisch, which points out that it could be an independant language and this is only doubted when "standard German" is used as a Dachsprache, something which standardized spelling as in the bible takes care of
Bairisch, which notes that Bavarian as a language has been considered endangered by UNESCO since 2009

There are very few monolingual speakers of either of these, and neither is the language of a political entity. Granted, some variants may be as little as 70-80% mutually intelligible with "standard German", but I would opine it better to err on the side of caution.

Do I put these on my CV? Well, no, but because it's not really relevant. In conversation, I do mention it if those languages come up, and in some professional situations I have been known to switch when around native speakers. If someone pushes me to directly list languages, I certainly include them (if necessary, accompanied by the plea that they are, indeed, languages and not regional dialects).


In comparison to standard German, I wouldn't automatically dispute that Plattdeutsch, Bayerisch (Boarisch), Schwaebisch (and especially Schwyzerduetsch) are languages. However this realization is founded on how divergent they are; not on non-linguistic criteria. Even if Lower Saxony, Bavaria, Swabia and Switzerland had never existed or if the respective speech communities came to imagine themselves to be always the same ethnic group, that wouldn't say much why the morphology, lexis and phonology are that divergent. There's nothing "unnatural" or "improper" about a seemingly unifed ethnic group showing language variation to the point where they can't understand each other natively without resorting to a common standard language any more than different ethnic groups use nothing more than variants of one language to the point where these different ethnic groups can't reliably or honestly conclude that the others speak a different "language" just because of their ethnic affiliation or place of residence within some borders.

On a CV I wouldn't reject a candidate who put down one or more of the divergent items beside "German" (implied to be the standard form) because I know how different they are but like you I would wonder a little bit about the motivation. In business, using non-standard or regional forms with clients isn't that useful outside perhaps the occasional informal chat on the phone or if it's known that the clients will have little problem with or even welcome the use of such regionalisms or non-standard items in business communications.


Right, so we agree in principle (though I disagree with the implication that Schwäbisch and Schwyzerdütsch aren't also different languages, haha). In regard to variation, though, there is the fact that one can take small language-community steps (say, Salzburg-Munich-Augsburg-Ulm-Stuttgart) and retain 90+% intercomprehensability in that continuum. So the significant difference is only when comparing "centers" - and I think this is pertinent to the definition of languages, if we are prepared to retain the opinion that they are different when they are in such a continuum.

Of course, this would also require an intersting look at the idea of being polyglottal; let's take an Augsburg native with grandparents in Switzerland (if you will allow my distinction above as well). This individual probably hits 4 languages, "standard German", Mittelbairisch, Ostschwäbisch, and Schwyzerdütsch. I'm ok with calling that polyglottal.

I grant your point about business, I can get away with it even where a native speaker would not due to my field and being a non-native speaker. It works out useful for me also with older folks whose comfort zone is definitely not in "standard German", but it is hardly a common situation.
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beano
Diglot
Senior Member
United KingdomRegistered users can see my Skype Name
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 Message 106 of 299
18 October 2013 at 3:08pm | IP Logged 
Chung wrote:


In business, using non-standard or regional forms with clients isn't that useful outside perhaps the occasional
informal chat on the phone or if it's known that the clients will have little problem with or even welcome the
use of such regionalisms or non-standard items in business communications.


Although it has been statistically proven that people are more likely to buy a product if the seller speaks their
regional dialect in a situation where it wouldn't necessarily be expected.

So perhaps in certain sales situations there is a place for more locally flavoured language.
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s_allard
Triglot
Senior Member
Canada
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Studies: Polish

 
 Message 107 of 299
18 October 2013 at 3:36pm | IP Logged 
For a different perspective on this whole question, it may be interesting to look at countries where the official
language is not the languge of the majority. Such is the case of much of subsaharan Africa where French, English
and Portuguese are the official languages. In Côte d'Ivoire, for example, French is the only official language but
around 60 languages are spoken in its borders. I'll let other people fight over whether these are true languages
or dialects.

The main point here is that there is no common Ivoirean language. Does everybody speak French? Of course not.
Only a very tiny elite and the expat population speak French as a native language. To highly varying degrees the
population speaks Ivoirean French but the most widespread common language is Dioula a language of trade
spoken throughout most of West Africa.

This situation is typical of that of most of the West African countries, but there is an interesting twist here. There
is a new language called Nouchi created by young people in the slums of the capital, Abidjan during the 70s.
Nouchi is a mixture of French and indigenous languages. After the predictable phase of universal condemnation
by school teachers, the media and the elite, Nouchi has been spreading like wildfire. Books, dictionaries, radio
programs, courses on Nouchi are now available.

Will Nouchi evolve into the Ivoirean national language? I don't know but there is a good chance. What I see
happening here is another example of the fundamental need of a form of expression of national identity. French
was and still is to some extent a colonial language imposed by France. It's just a matter of time before a new
indigenous national language emerges to replace it.

Edited by s_allard on 18 October 2013 at 3:39pm

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Random review
Diglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
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Studies: Portuguese, Mandarin, Yiddish, German

 
 Message 108 of 299
18 October 2013 at 9:34pm | IP Logged 
s_allard wrote:
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
Stelle wrote:
Solfrid Cristin wrote:

Acadian and Quebecois possibly would qualify as different enough from standard French to be considered
different languages.


As a French Canadian (neither Quebecoise nor Acadian - my family tree has roots in Northern Ontario,
another
very
French part of Canada) - I have to disagree. They're no more different languages than British English and
American
English are different languages, or Castillano and Argentinian Spanish. Accents are different, vocabulary is
a bit
different, idiomatic expressions aren't quite the same - but that doesn't make them different languages.


Then I'll take your word for it. You are the expert :-)

I am not in a position to judge whether these variants are different enough, as I have never heard them
spoken -
just read about them - but I could not rule it out. My main point was that what I have heard of Belgian
French
certainly would not qualify as a different language.

Let me weigh in on this. Our discussion about what constitutes a distinct language has centered on two
criteria:
linguistic features and political status. Why are Québécois and Acadian not considered distinct languages
from
French French? It's not the lack of distinctive linguistic features. It's their political status.

I won't go into a boring historical treatise on the question, but I'd like to look at how use the word French-
Canadian or Canadien-français has evolved considerably in the last 50 years. Prior to the late 60s the
French-
speaking population of Canada was called French-Canadian. People spoke about French-Canadian
literature,
culture, etc. The word Québécois referred only to the habitants of Québec City.

The rise of a strong Quebec independence movement in the 60s led to a radical change in vocabulary. The
inhabitants of the province of Quebec are now known as les Québécois and this is the word used to refer
to
anything related to Quebec, i.e. literature, music, cinema, etc.

The word canadien-français has basically disappeared from daily usage in Quebec. In fact it is often used
in a
derogatory manner. It is sometimes used to refer to French-speakers outside of Quebec and Acadia
although a
very common term is franco-canadien.

The word francophone that was unheard of 60 years ago has become very prominant and will often
replace
canadien-français. No one in their right mind would speak today of la litéerature canadienne-française or
French-Canadian literature when speaking of all literature in French from Canada. What they would
probably say
is la litérature francophone.

To come back to our debate here, this evolution of terms like canadien-français, québécois and
francophone is
the product of a process that we see all over the world: words change meaning and usage to reflect
political and
social changes.

On a separate note, our debate reminded me that there will be a referendum on the independence of
Scotland in
2014. If the Yes side wins and Scotland becomes an independent country, a decision will have to made
about the
official language be? Will it be Scots, English or Scottiish Gaelic?



Sadly a "yes vote" is looking unlikely. If we do vote for independence, English will definitely be an official
language, that much is for sure. I don't know whether Gaelic or any other language will be given co-official

status or not. I think George Galloway pointed out a few years ago that (at the time) there were more
native speakers of Polish than Gaelic in Scotland. The assumption that number of native speakers should
be the primary criterion for deciding whether to give a language official status is obviously naïve and I
mention it because it somehow seems relevant to the thread to my mind, not quite sure how.
[

Edited by Random review on 18 October 2013 at 9:37pm

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Henkkles
Triglot
Senior Member
Finland
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544 posts - 1141 votes 
Speaks: Finnish*, English, Swedish
Studies: Russian

 
 Message 109 of 299
19 October 2013 at 1:16pm | IP Logged 
Bickering about what is a language is pretty useless, as if mutual intelligibility means something is not a language if there is a similar language and they can understand each other. This would render language isolates as more "true" languages than others. Mutual intelligibility also varies; basic sentences in related languages of the same dialect continuum can be very transparent; almost identical, but the further away one drifts from there the lesser the transparency becomes.

For example any Finn will understand the following Estonian sample;

Paberipuu hinnad on jällegi suhteliselt madalad.

The next one is not so transparent;

Otsusel pole aga mingit mõju enne, kui senat otsustab ta parlamendist välja heita.

[Source: www.postimees.ee]
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s_allard
Triglot
Senior Member
Canada
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2704 posts - 5425 votes 
Speaks: French*, English, Spanish
Studies: Polish

 
 Message 110 of 299
19 October 2013 at 2:40pm | IP Logged 
One of the interesting aspects for me of this debate or discussion is learning how diverse most if not all
languages
are. We say that the language of Norway is Norwegian and that of Germany is German, but when you scratch the
surface, you realize that besides a standard written form taught in schools, the spoken language has all sorts of
variations that are a reflection of the geography and the social history of the language.

When I hear people speaking Quebec French, I can usually tell their approximate age, where they grew up, how
educated they are and usually the kind of work they do. British English sounds all the same to me, but I know
very well that for native Brits accent is extremely important and says much about the social class of the speaker.

My Brazilian friends tell me that there are many different accents in their country. It's the same in
American English
where one can even speak of African-American English that some people call Ebonics ans say it's a separate
language.

Edited by s_allard on 20 October 2013 at 3:24am

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Henkkles
Triglot
Senior Member
Finland
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544 posts - 1141 votes 
Speaks: Finnish*, English, Swedish
Studies: Russian

 
 Message 111 of 299
19 October 2013 at 3:44pm | IP Logged 
s_allard wrote:
One of the interesting aspects for me of this debate or discussion is learning how diverse most if not all
languages
are. We say that the language of Norway is Norwegian and that of Germany is German, but when you scratch the
surface, you realize that besides a standard written form taught in schools, the spoken language has all sorts of
variations that are a reflection of the geography and the social history of the language.

I forgot to mention this. A language is not something set in stone. The name "German" is a blanket for all of the people who speak an idiolect all others can understand and it has nothing to do with written or standard German. All of their idiolects work with more or less similar principles and so they are able to understand each other. All too often we confuse standard language with the actual language. For example, the standardized Finnish could be called a constructed language because no one speaks it, hence its name; "book-language". It just ties the ends together. Our professor at uni told us that one of his colleagues went to the army in the seventies and he had major trouble understanding other men of his age who were from the other side of the dialect-line; Finnish can roughly be split into two dialect-groups, east and west dialects, that vary in usage of cases (some east dialects actually have preserved a case that has died out everywhere else) and the way to construct the imperfective tense is different. Yet all of these are Finnish through mutual agreement.
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Chung
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 Message 112 of 299
19 October 2013 at 7:03pm | IP Logged 
Henkkles wrote:
Bickering about what is a language is pretty useless, as if mutual intelligibility means something is not a language if there is a similar language and they can understand each other. This would render language isolates as more "true" languages than others. Mutual intelligibility also varies; basic sentences in related languages of the same dialect continuum can be very transparent; almost identical, but the further away one drifts from there the lesser the transparency becomes.

For example any Finn will understand the following Estonian sample;

Paberipuu hinnad on jällegi suhteliselt madalad.

The next one is not so transparent;

Otsusel pole aga mingit mõju enne, kui senat otsustab ta parlamendist välja heita.

[Source: www.postimees.ee]


Although there are weaknesses in relying on mutual intelligibility in linguistic taxonomy, the alternative of appealing to non-linguistic criteria (e.g. political boundaries, emotions (i.e. "Respect our feelings! Everyone else must agree that we speak a different language from our neighbours of a different ethnic group/religious affiliation even though none of us can't reliably tell if what those neighbours use is ungrammatical to us whenever we hear them or read their messages!")) seems less helpful. By trying to admit non-linguistic elements into the discussion at the expense of mutual intelligibility and comparative analysis using structural linguistics, it smacks of the fallacy of perfection.

Not even with the most strained arguments using mutual intelligibility could someone honestly conclude that Estonian and Finnish are anything but different languages. Finnish and North Karelian, or even more heatedly Finnish and Meankieli would be better examples but even then the intrusion of politics is not helpful and only seems to inflame emotion and make the discussion more subjective and political (it certainly is with the case of Finnish and Meankieli because of the Swedish government's policy of differentiating the two as part of its policy on minority languages despite the low divergence between the two as gathered in dialectological work, compared to Finnish and North Karelian to say nothing of Finnish and Estonian).

In any case, even though it'd seem rather pointless because Estonian and Finnish are that divergent, I wonder if there's a study comparing the two like this one for BCMS/SC that uses structural linguistic analysis to address a matter of linguistic taxonomy. On one hand, it'd seem obvious to conduct a linguistics experiment using findings from the nuts and bolts of language (i.e. grammar, lexis and phonetics), but because of the (IMHO unfortunately) willing allowance/promotion of non-linguistic elements in certain linguistic matters, it seems as if linguists need to apologize that their scientific approach ignores elements that are qualitative, subjective or incapable of being proven or disproven (to a certain degree this means that the scientist almost apolgizes for not being unscientific).

Edited by Chung on 19 October 2013 at 7:16pm



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