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vonPeterhof Tetraglot Senior Member Russian FederationRegistered users can see my Skype Name Joined 4773 days ago 715 posts - 1527 votes Speaks: Russian*, EnglishC2, Japanese, German Studies: Kazakh, Korean, Norwegian, Turkish
| Message 49 of 84 18 June 2012 at 10:54am | IP Logged |
@fiziwig Not gonna argue with your theory, just gonna do what I do best - nitpick!
fiziwig wrote:
I have no experience with Chinese, but I have a collection of 17 translations of the Tao Te Ching and it is clear by comparing those translations with each other that the original Chinese must have been practically without meaning, at least in the English sense of "meaning". |
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One should keep in mind that Tao Te Ching is not representative of modern spoken Chinese, and possibly even of any kind of spoken Chinese. It was written in Classical Chinese, a written language with a grammar based to some extent on spoken Old Chinese, but made deliberately as brief as possible (but not concise) through the use of high context messages and literary allusions. Here is what Wikipedia has to say:
Wikipedia wrote:
Translational difficulties
The Tao Te Ching is written in Classical Chinese, which can be difficult to understand completely, even for well-educated native speakers of modern Chinese. Classical Chinese relies heavily on allusion to a corpus of standard literary works to convey semantic meaning, nuance, and subtext. This corpus was memorized by highly educated people in Laozi's time, and the allusions were reinforced through common use in writing, but few people today have this type of deep acquaintance with ancient Chinese literature. Thus, many levels of subtext are potentially lost on modern translators. Furthermore, many of the words that the Tao Te Ching uses are deliberately vague and ambiguous.
Since there are no punctuation marks in Classical Chinese, it can be difficult to conclusively determine where one sentence ends and the next begins. Moving a full-stop a few words forward or back or inserting a comma can profoundly alter the meaning of many passages, and such divisions and meanings must be determined by the translator. Some editors and translators argue that the received text is so corrupted (from originally being written on one-line bamboo strips linked with silk threads) that it is impossible to understand some chapters without moving sequences of characters from one place to another. |
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fiziwig wrote:
So if you suffer angst over your kindergarten student enjoying an apéritif on the chaise lounge on your patio overlooking the arroyo while discussing his karma with his guru just remember that the reason English is more precise is that it takes what it needs to achieve that precision from every other language in the world. You could say that our language is constantly on safari hunting down more precise meanings that it can steal from other languages. |
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FTFY. Norman and Old Norse words have been present in English for longer, but they are loanwords nonetheless (and "lounge" is of uncertain origins). Sure, this only strengthens your point, but as I said, not disputing it, I'm just a compulsive nitpicker ;)
Edited by vonPeterhof on 18 June 2012 at 10:55am
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| Hampie Diglot Senior Member Sweden Joined 6660 days ago 625 posts - 1009 votes Speaks: Swedish*, English Studies: Latin, German, Mandarin
| Message 50 of 84 18 June 2012 at 11:17am | IP Logged |
What languages does not loan words for things they have no words of their own? Diskutera, karma, guru, precis,
taga, precision, konstant, and safari are words that exist in Swedish. Take, is by the way not a loan word.
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| vonPeterhof Tetraglot Senior Member Russian FederationRegistered users can see my Skype Name Joined 4773 days ago 715 posts - 1527 votes Speaks: Russian*, EnglishC2, Japanese, German Studies: Kazakh, Korean, Norwegian, Turkish
| Message 51 of 84 18 June 2012 at 11:45am | IP Logged |
Hampie wrote:
Take, is by the way not a loan word. |
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According to etymonline.com it is, from Old Norse. Although I do agree that native English speakers tend to put too much emphasis on their language's prowess in absorbing loanwords and underestimate the extent to which it is done in other languages (新選国語辞典, a Japanese dictionary, estimates the percentage of indigenous Japanese words to be just 33.8%, and according to some sources that percentage for Brahui is only 15%; estimates for English range from 25% to 33%).
Edited by vonPeterhof on 18 June 2012 at 11:50am
1 person has voted this message useful
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emk Diglot Moderator United States Joined 5533 days ago 2615 posts - 8806 votes Speaks: English*, FrenchB2 Studies: Spanish, Ancient Egyptian Personal Language Map
| Message 52 of 84 18 June 2012 at 12:45pm | IP Logged |
lecavaleur wrote:
French, on the other hand, is famous for all its many rules and
exceptions, but at least they are there to consult when needed, and the spoken language
is more or less faithful to what you can read about it in dictionaries, grammars and
other references. |
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Sort of. Colloquial spoken French is a really interesting language. Besides the obvious
differences from written French (questions almost never use inversion, ne is
dropped more often than not, on is the second-personal plural subject pronoun),
there's a lot of deeply fascinating stuff going on in spoken French, including
topic/comment and comment/anti-topic constructions, fun clefts (Y a que lui qui me
comprend!) and all sorts of other things that get linguists excited. As one put it,
"We've really said goodbye to Standard Average European here, haven't we?"
But this is all just enthusiastic linguistics geekery. Most students of French never
even notice this stuff; they just pick it up by osmosis, and spend several weeks
enthusiastically repeating things like "C'est ______, ça !"
I agree that English orthography is kind of an evil mess, and we sure do love our
phrasal verbs and prepositions. And does anyone even agree on how many past
tenses and aspects we have?
Still, every language has some headaches like this. Just try looking up Old Norse verbs
in the dictionary. ("OK, so we have an initial consonant, a vowel mutated by a sound
law, and a consonant assimilated by the suffix. Basically, we know it starts with
's'.") Or Latin ablatives. ("This term, class, we're going to learn 25 new uses of the
ablative case.") Or German syntax. Or Irish phonology. Or Russian verbs. Or Arabic
dialects. Or Chinese tones. Or Kanji readings. Or Korean phonology.
Isn't it pretty much a cliché? If you ask native speakers, pretty much every language
is the hardest language on earth. It's more like every language has some twisty little
challenges and some areas of surprising simplicity. The only real question is how
much vocabulary, grammar, phonology and orthography you can recycle from a related
language.
Edited by emk on 18 June 2012 at 2:12pm
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| Josquin Heptaglot Senior Member Germany Joined 4845 days ago 2266 posts - 3992 votes Speaks: German*, English, French, Latin, Italian, Russian, Swedish Studies: Japanese, Irish, Portuguese, Persian
| Message 53 of 84 18 June 2012 at 12:50pm | IP Logged |
fiziwig wrote:
In other words, I am proposing that English can faithfully capture anything written in Spanish, but that Spanish cannot always capture everything that is written in English. |
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I have heard many things, but this is the biggest load of rubbish I have ever heard...
Edited by Josquin on 18 June 2012 at 1:29pm
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| fiziwig Senior Member United States Joined 4866 days ago 297 posts - 618 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish
| Message 54 of 84 18 June 2012 at 6:24pm | IP Logged |
Josquin wrote:
fiziwig wrote:
In other words, I am proposing that English can faithfully capture anything written in Spanish, but that Spanish cannot always capture everything that is written in English. |
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I have heard many things, but this is the biggest load of rubbish I have ever heard... |
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English: "I have three sons."
translated to Spanish: "Tengo tres hijos."
translated back to English: "I have three children, at least one of which is a son, but the sex of the others is unspecified."
The Spanish translation does not capture all the information in the English original. Spanish cannot make the simple, bare statement "I have three sons." without introducing ambiguity not present in the English original. I rest my case.
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| Josquin Heptaglot Senior Member Germany Joined 4845 days ago 2266 posts - 3992 votes Speaks: German*, English, French, Latin, Italian, Russian, Swedish Studies: Japanese, Irish, Portuguese, Persian
| Message 55 of 84 18 June 2012 at 7:02pm | IP Logged |
fiziwig wrote:
Josquin wrote:
fiziwig wrote:
In other words, I am proposing that English can faithfully capture anything written in Spanish, but that Spanish cannot always capture everything that is written in English. |
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I have heard many things, but this is the biggest load of rubbish I have ever heard... |
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English: "I have three sons."
translated to Spanish: "Tengo tres hijos."
translated back to English: "I have three children, at least one of which is a son, but the sex of the others is unspecified."
The Spanish translation does not capture all the information in the English original. Spanish cannot make the simple, bare statement "I have three sons." without introducing ambiguity not present in the English original. I rest my case.
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Unfortunately, I don't speak any Spanish (though I can understand it to a certain degree), so I can't give a counter-example. To state that a given language A cannot render all information of another language B is trivial, but to say that on the other hand language B can capture every single information of language A - which would make it a superior language by the way - is pure nonsense! There is no way that every nuance of a Spanish text can be reproduced in English, simply because of all the associations a native Spanish speaker has with certain words and expressions that don't exist in English.
Your example proves nothing. So, the word "hijo" is ambiguous compared to the word "son". I am convinced there are Spanish words that become ambiguous when they are translated into English. For a Spanish speaker the use of subjunctive has a certain content of information that cannot be reproduced in English. For you, the use of subjunctive may be only a set of rules, for a native Spanish speaker there is a certain notion added to the concept.
As I said, unfortunately I cannot give you a specific Spanish example, but let's have a look at Russian instead. Russian verbs of motion distinguish between going by foot and going by car, whether the motion is directioned towards a goal or not, and whether it takes place once or several times. All this cannot be rendered adequately in English, so English is not more precise than other languages.
Every language is complex in its own way, and it's not possible to reproduce every aspect of information in another language. So, my saying "This is rubbish" was based on fundamental considerations about language as a human concept and not a single case study of "Tengo tres hijos". I rest my case.
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| PillowRock Groupie United States Joined 4735 days ago 87 posts - 151 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish
| Message 56 of 84 18 June 2012 at 9:27pm | IP Logged |
Medulin wrote:
Americans may correct your English if you use ''I recommend you to + infinitive'' |
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Just a nitpick about the details of English grammar:
In English, the "to" is considered part of the infinitive form of a verb. For example, the French movie title "Etre et avoir" is rendered in English as "To Be and to Have". That fact also creates the possibility of the "split infinitive" (placing a modifier between the "to" and the verb); which all English grammar books say is incorrect, but which many native English speakers do fairly often in informal speech. (One well known example of a split infinitive from American pop culture is the phrase "to boldly go" from the Star Trek intro.)
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