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English: I am yet to...ing vs I have yet

  Tags: Grammar | English
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26 messages over 4 pages: 1 2 3 4  Next >>
Gemuse
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 Message 1 of 26
21 May 2014 at 8:36pm | IP Logged 
From Ms Diva's log...

"I am yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles"
vs
"I have yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles"

Serpent wrote:
I don't see anything wrong with "I'm yet to get used"

Quote:

"I am yet to get used to" sounds wrong, I would have written "I have yet to get used
to".
But perhaps this is more subtle than I thought.
http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=10085
http://www.englishforums.com/English/Versus/djxxm/post.htm

Combing with the implicit intention in the original sentence that the activity has
started, "have" seems natural.


Serpent wrote:

I think "have" would work better if Via_Diva was forced to learn English but didn't
care. It emphasizes having no choice. Necessity rather than determination.
Since someone mentioned Jane Austen, I suppose "I'm yet to" is more common in British
English too.

edit: for example, one of the first examples in google is "I'm perfectly aware of what
I'm yet to know". It's just a more eloquent way of saying "what I don't know" and very
different from "what I have to know". It certainly implies a desire to learn more, but
it focuses on the present situation and future plans.


Quote:

"I'm yet to know" sounds perfectly fine. Thinking about it, the issue may be
"watching",
ie. "ing" verb in the original sentence.
"I am yet to get used to English movies" sounds perfectly fine
"I am yet to get used to watching movies"...the "have" version sounds better.






Edited by Gemuse on 21 May 2014 at 8:55pm
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Gemuse
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 Message 2 of 26
21 May 2014 at 8:38pm | IP Logged 
Serpent wrote:
But watching is a gerund, and it should be interchangeable with any
noun here. If anything, the addition of "watching" makes me prefer "I'm" here, as it's
better than "I've yet to get used", but with the full form of "have" there's too many
auxiliary verbs in one sentence. It's not wrong but it feels clumsy, much like those
sentences with the double perfect.
Also, have is short for "have got", and "I have got to get used" is even more awkward.


Ugh, I know squat about formal English grammar, I just go by the sound.
"I have got to get used" is actually pretty standard, but it has a different meaning
(at least to me), It says that I really desire something. Usually the "got" to is
stressed.
"I have got to get used to waking up early".
And AFAIK the connotation is that I should wake up early, but I am being lazy about it.
Without "got" the connotation changes.


PS: have is short for "have got"? Did not know that.
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hrhenry
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 Message 3 of 26
21 May 2014 at 8:43pm | IP Logged 
Gemuse wrote:

PS: have is short for "have got"? Did not know that.

Not necessarily. I think it's down to regional use, more than anything.

R.
==
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ScottScheule
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 Message 4 of 26
21 May 2014 at 9:43pm | IP Logged 
The former sounds a bit more archaic to me, sort of like the use of "to be" as a helping verb for certain verbs in the present perfect. Whereas today, we say, "I have come," in older English (like the King James Bible), you'll find "I am come." Much like you find in French.

But both sound fine.

Edited by ScottScheule on 21 May 2014 at 9:44pm
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James29
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 Message 5 of 26
21 May 2014 at 10:48pm | IP Logged 
"I am yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles" does not sound right. I don't think "yet" works that way. I would say "I am not yet used to watching movies without subtitles".

"I have yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles" sounds fine.
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Serpent
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 Message 6 of 26
22 May 2014 at 1:46am | IP Logged 
ScottScheule wrote:
The former sounds a bit more archaic to me, sort of like the use of "to be" as a helping verb for certain verbs in the present perfect. Whereas today, we say, "I have come," in older English (like the King James Bible), you'll find "I am come." Much like you find in French.

But both sound fine.
It's more like "I'm to do it", meaning "I'm supposed to".

Would you say it's interchangeable in the following contexts?

-I'm yet to come across something like that.
-I have yet to find something like that. (more deliberate and forced, imho)

Edited by Serpent on 22 May 2014 at 1:49am
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Serpent
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 Message 7 of 26
22 May 2014 at 1:59am | IP Logged 
Gemuse wrote:
Ugh, I know squat about formal English grammar, I just go by the sound.
"I have got to get used" is actually pretty standard, but it has a different meaning
(at least to me), It says that I really desire something. Usually the "got" to is
stressed.
"I have got to get used to waking up early".
And AFAIK the connotation is that I should wake up early, but I am being lazy about it.
Without "got" the connotation changes.

To me that's the distinction between "I'm yet to" and "I have yet to"/"I've got to". Yeah it's pretty standard, but it sounds awkward with a full form of "have got".

Also (to natives) is there a difference between "I have yet to" and "I still have to"? IMO "I have yet to" is somewhere in between "I'm yet to" and "I still have to" on a modality scale.

Edited by Serpent on 22 May 2014 at 2:16am
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s0fist
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 Message 8 of 26
22 May 2014 at 2:38am | IP Logged 
Serpent wrote:

Also (to natives) is there a difference between "I have yet to" and "I still have to"?

In the first case you have never done something before.
In the second case you could have done it many times before you just still have to do it.
To illustrate: I have yet to start flossing, but I still have to brush my teeth everyday.

Regarding the original expression, I agree with James:

James29 wrote:
"I am yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles" does not sound right. I don't think "yet" works that way. I would say "I am not yet used to watching movies without subtitles".

"I have yet to get used to watching movies without subtitles" sounds fine.


I wouldn't necessarily call "I am yet to get used to" ungrammatical or even archaic, it just sounds weird.


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