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Object pronouns in Portuguese

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LanguagePhysics
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 Message 1 of 5
01 May 2014 at 2:05pm | IP Logged 
In European Portuguese and Galician, which is arguably a Portuguese dialect, object pronouns generally come after the verb. How has this come about?

In Spanish and just about every other Romance language, the object pronoun comes before the verb, so European Portuguese seems to be an anomaly in this sense. In Spanish, the only situation in which an object pronoun is allowed after the verb is if it is attached to an infinitive.

Even in Brazilian Portuguese, the object pronoun comes before the verb, perhaps as a direct influence from Spanish.

How has the tendency for European Portuguese speakers to put the object pronoun after the verb emerged? Why does this not appear in Spanish?
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Medulin
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 Message 2 of 5
01 May 2014 at 6:26pm | IP Logged 
LanguagePhysics wrote:
In European Portuguese and Galician, which is arguably a Portuguese dialect, object pronouns generally come after the verb.

Not true.
European Portuguese as well as formal written Brazilian Portuguese has a complex system of rules: there are cases when enclisis should be used, and there are cases when proclisis should be used (as with ''connecting words'').   The system of 'connecting words'' is not inherent in native Brazilian speech. Brazilians have to learn rules by heart, at school, during grammar classes.

Unlike in American English situation, grammar test of formal Portuguese grammar is required prior to applying for nicer job positions in Brazil (for native speakers), so it's a lucrative market that benefits from differences between normal spoken Brazilian Portuguese,
and Portugal-based written language (formal written Brazilian Portuguese is based on 19th century European Portuguese, albeit with Brazilian spelling): https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gE5aXCQpkVE

There are differences between formal E.P. and formal B.P too:

in Portugal, o(s)/a(s) are favored before infinitives: para o ver, antes de o fazer
in Brazil, -lo(s), -la(s) are used instead: para vê-lo, antes de fazê-lo

In formal B.P. enclisis is many times overused, because as I said before, the concept of connecting words
is not natural in Brazilian writing, so hypercorrections are common, and not considered incorrect:

''Lanço mão também de estudo em painel e em tendência para verificar se o processo variável ENCONTRA-SE em mudança na língua. '' (famous linguist Maria Cecilia Mollica in her thesis http://www.uel.br/revistas/uel/index.php/signum/article/view File/13041/12501)

LanguagePhysics wrote:

Even in Brazilian Portuguese, the object pronoun comes before the verb, perhaps as a direct influence from Spanish.
Not really, it's a remnant of medieval Portuguese, which was more proclitic than the formal written
standard in both Portugal and Brazil.

In colloquial Brazilian Portuguese, strong ''pronouns'' (você, vocês, o senhor, a senhora, os senhores, and basilectallly all others) are still enclitic,
only ME, LHE, TE, SE, NOS are proclitic:

Ele nos viu = Ele viu a gente. = Ele viu nós (the last one is extremely informal/basilectal, used in rural settings or poorer neighborhoods)
Eu te amo. = Eu amo você. = Eu amo tu. (the last one is dialectal, basilectal, heard in Rio and Recife).
Me beija! = ''Beija eu!'' (dialectal, and expressive, for example used by Marisa Monte in her famous song).

O, OS, A, AS are either discarded, or used with L-, so they are enclitic> -LO,-LOS, -LA, -LAS:
Se você não convidar ela (spoken Brazilian) -> Se você não convidá-la (writen and sometimes spoken Brazilian) ---> Se você não a convidar (continental Portuguese, but rare in Brazil).

---
Another complex issue is ''pronome solto entre dois verbos'' (which was considered incorrect in formal BP untill the 1970ies although it was extremely common in fine Brazilian writers; from 1990ies it has been accepted into the formal written standard, even manuals of style of famous newspapers (like Estadão or Folha) state ''hyphen is no longer needed in these cases''

Vou-te convidar (continental Portuguese, stress> Voute/convidar) -> Vou te convidar (Brazilian Portuguese, stress Vou/teconvidar) -> Vou convidar-te (formal in both).
Não te vou convidar (neutral continental Portuguese) -> Não vou te convidar (neutral Brazilian Portuguese) -> Não vou convidar-te (formal in both).
Não se poderia dizer (general Portuguese) -> Não poderia se dizer (used only in Brazil) -> Não poderia dizer-se (formal in both).

(Many Brazilians who write Pode-se dizer also write Poderia-se dizer which is incorrect [it should be Poder-se-ia dizer],
by writing à brasileira> Pode se dizer, one makes no mistakes because both Pode se dizer and Poderia se dizer are written correctly according to modern Brazilian grammar).

Edited by Medulin on 01 May 2014 at 6:41pm

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1e4e6
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 Message 3 of 5
01 May 2014 at 11:57pm | IP Logged 
I believe that Medieval Spanish had the Portuguese word-order with the verb followed by
object and reflexive pronouns, but I am unsure exactly when this practise was lost. One
could say, Acuéstome instead of Me acuesto, and likewise probably
something like, Dánnoslo instead of Nos lo dan. This word-order pervades
the imperative in Spanish however: ¡Dámelo!.

In Portuguese, I think that Brazilian Portuguese develops like Spanish with pre-clitic
pronoun placement: Me o disseram instead of Disseram-mo. In PT-EU, it is
still possible to use hyphenated versions for both single and double object pronouns
with the verb stem split for the future and conditional tenses:

Comprar-vo-lo-ei, I shall buy it for you
Escrever-lho-am, They shall write it for him
Preparar-no-la-eis, You shall prepare it for us
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LanguagePhysics
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 Message 4 of 5
02 May 2014 at 2:31pm | IP Logged 
Medulin wrote:

The system of 'connecting words'' is not inherent in native Brazilian speech.


What do you mean by connecting words and why are they not inherent to native Brazilian speech?

Quote:
In formal B.P. enclisis is many times overused, because as I said before, the concept of connecting words
is not natural in Brazilian writing, so hypercorrections are common, and not considered incorrect


It seems that in formal Brazilian Portuguese, the rule is to put the object pronoun before the verb, as in Spanish.

When you say Brazilians overuse enclisis in formal language, can you give some examples of where they would use enclisis in cases they should technically use proclisis?

Quote:
only ME, LHE, TE, SE, NOS are proclitic:


As far as I am aware, in European Portuguese those pronouns tend to be enclitic, with some exceptions. I find it strange that in Brazilian Portuguese they are proclitic, as in Spanish.
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Medulin
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 Message 5 of 5
02 May 2014 at 9:31pm | IP Logged 
But there are many differences:

''Me siga! vs Sígame!
''Por te amar'' vs ''Por amarte''
''Te ver e não te querer é improvável, impossível'' vs ''Verte y no quererte es improbable, imposible.''
''Sei que vou te amar'' vs ''Sé que voy a amarte'' / ''Sé que te voy a amar''
''Vende-se'' vs ''Se vende''
''Tinha/havia nos visto'' vs ''Nos había visto''.

One can also notice similarities with
Italian (me defenda! = mi difenda! )
and French (se reunir = se réunir).

So, overall, the spoken Brazilian Portuguese is different than any other Romance language
when it comes to ''colocação pronominal'', it has some things in common with formal written Brazilian Portuguese and Continental Portuguese, some things in common with Spanish, some with French and Italian, and some unique features (like ''Não sei se vou te amar'', ''Nos convidem mais cedo por favor''). ''Se você seguir ela / Se você segui-la'' are pretty genuine too.

Edited by Medulin on 02 May 2014 at 9:57pm



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