Register  Login  Active Topics  Maps  

Past vs Present participle logic

 Language Learning Forum : Questions About Your Target Languages Post Reply
20 messages over 3 pages: 13  Next >>
stelingo
Hexaglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
Joined 5833 days ago

722 posts - 1076 votes 
Speaks: English*, Spanish, Portuguese, French, German, Italian
Studies: Russian, Czech, Polish, Greek, Mandarin

 
 Message 9 of 20
20 August 2012 at 1:35am | IP Logged 
In my opinion I continue seated is not correct English. I remain seated is fine.
1 person has voted this message useful



outcast
Bilingual Heptaglot
Senior Member
China
Joined 4950 days ago

869 posts - 1364 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*, English*, German, Italian, French, Portuguese, Mandarin
Studies: Korean

 
 Message 10 of 20
20 August 2012 at 3:23am | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:
outcast wrote:
...
But it still does not explain, even in Spanish, what determines when to use one or the other.

After reading your original post (perhaps not attentively enough), I was scratching my head trying to figure out what the question was. If that's all that there's to it, maybe thinking in terms of 'active' and 'passive' participles will help you.

BTW, I'm not so sure just one of them can be used in every example you gave, but from the terms above it should be pretty intuitive when to use which one ;)


Intuition is bad news when trying to use correct grammar in a non-native language.
2 persons have voted this message useful



mrwarper
Diglot
Winner TAC 2012
Senior Member
Spain
forum_posts.asp?TID=Registered users can see my Skype Name
Joined 5227 days ago

1493 posts - 2500 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*, EnglishC2
Studies: German, Russian, Japanese

 
 Message 11 of 20
20 August 2012 at 12:53pm | IP Logged 
Intuition develops over time. It naturally takes longer in non-native languages due to comparatively lesser exposure and hints remaining not-so-clear, but it does nonetheless.

However, I thought you were a native speaker of both Spanish AND English, so in your case it shouldn't really matter.

Edited by mrwarper on 20 August 2012 at 12:55pm

3 persons have voted this message useful



hrhenry
Octoglot
Senior Member
United States
languagehopper.blogs
Joined 5131 days ago

1871 posts - 3642 votes 
Speaks: English*, SpanishC2, ItalianC2, Norwegian, Catalan, Galician, Turkish, Portuguese
Studies: Polish, Indonesian, Ojibwe

 
 Message 12 of 20
20 August 2012 at 4:47pm | IP Logged 
outcast wrote:

Intuition is bad news when trying to use correct grammar in a non-native language.

And yet we rely on it all the time in our native language, particularly when we've not
studied our own grammar. Your initial post in the thread sort of demonstrates that - you
knew something didn't sound right, but couldn't explain why. Even after having studied
grammar, we rely on it. It's not bad news, just one more tool in our chest.

R.
==

3 persons have voted this message useful



outcast
Bilingual Heptaglot
Senior Member
China
Joined 4950 days ago

869 posts - 1364 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*, English*, German, Italian, French, Portuguese, Mandarin
Studies: Korean

 
 Message 13 of 20
20 August 2012 at 8:11pm | IP Logged 
I think I'm being misunderstood.

I didn't say anywhere intuition itself was bad. It is "bad" when you are trying to understand grammatically a foreign language concept, for the first time. I think the goal of ALL of us here is to one day have that full intuation in our TL. I already have an incipient intuition in both French and German for many things that a year ago I would have not had any clue for (modal particles and dative verbs in German, when to use an adverb vs adverbial locution, or when to use stress pronouns/phrases in French).

Ironically though, even though no one really could give me an answer to this question (though people like Emk certainly did a good gob at trying), that in itself is my answer.

There is no way or predicting how a language uses a present, past, or even infinitive in these situations. It has to be learned phrase by phrase by phrase. There is no grammatical logic behind it.

Edited by outcast on 20 August 2012 at 8:16pm

2 persons have voted this message useful



hrhenry
Octoglot
Senior Member
United States
languagehopper.blogs
Joined 5131 days ago

1871 posts - 3642 votes 
Speaks: English*, SpanishC2, ItalianC2, Norwegian, Catalan, Galician, Turkish, Portuguese
Studies: Polish, Indonesian, Ojibwe

 
 Message 14 of 20
20 August 2012 at 8:32pm | IP Logged 
outcast wrote:

There is no way or predicting how a language uses a present, past, or even infinitive in
these situations. It has to be learned phrase by phrase by phrase. There is no
grammatical logic behind it.

Of course there's logic behind it. If there were no logic behind it, we wouldn't have
grammar as we know it to describe how we speak.

Certainly languages may have exceptions to the general rules, but grammar was invented
and is there to logically describe how the language is constructed.

R.
==
1 person has voted this message useful



tractor
Tetraglot
Senior Member
Norway
Joined 5454 days ago

1349 posts - 2292 votes 
Speaks: Norwegian*, English, Spanish, Catalan
Studies: French, German, Latin

 
 Message 15 of 20
20 August 2012 at 9:48pm | IP Logged 
I don't know, but it may have something to do with the lexical aspect of the verb used, whether it is a perfective
verb (e.g. dormirse) or imperfective verb (e.g. dormir).
1 person has voted this message useful



Heriotza
Groupie
Dominican Republic
Joined 4681 days ago

48 posts - 71 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*

 
 Message 16 of 20
20 August 2012 at 11:01pm | IP Logged 
outcast wrote:


There is no way or predicting how a language uses a present, past, or even infinitive in these situations. It has to be learned phrase by phrase by phrase. There is no grammatical logic behind it.


At least in Spanish, there are explanations for this. Out of your examples, the only really grammatically odd sentence, because it is semantically confusing, is "Sigo aprendido". Because you can't "aprenderte a ti mismo", so it must be "sigo aprendido por alguien más". But this is still semantically weird, to say the least. However, if you say: 'Esa lección sigue aprendida (por mí)', it could probably not be the most elegant choice of word, but it is still a grammatically correct sentence.

'Sigo comido' is possible, but it needs a complement, as in this example:

"Dile que siento no llegar al doble -añadió el poeta, devolviendo el cofrecito a su sitio-, porque sigo comido de deudas" Arturo Pérez Reverte, 'El caballero del jubón amarillo'.


'Sigo sentando' is also possible, but again, it needs a complement:

"Por favor, termina el trabajo en la cocina, mientras yo sigo sentando a los invitados".

So, when the present and when the past are used in this situation? I would say: the present participle is used when describing an ongoing action. The past is used when describing a state. "Sigo sentado" is a state of someone, whereas "sigo sentando (a alguien") is an ongoing action exerted upon a subject.

I'm afraid I could be simplifying matters here, but I just wanted to point out that, of course, there is explanations for this and the problem is really lack of context rather than grammatically unexplainable sentences.

Edited by Heriotza on 20 August 2012 at 11:01pm



1 person has voted this message useful



This discussion contains 20 messages over 3 pages: << Prev 13  Next >>


Post ReplyPost New Topic Printable version Printable version

You cannot post new topics in this forum - You cannot reply to topics in this forum - You cannot delete your posts in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum - You cannot create polls in this forum - You cannot vote in polls in this forum


This page was generated in 0.3281 seconds.


DHTML Menu By Milonic JavaScript
Copyright 2024 FX Micheloud - All rights reserved
No part of this website may be copied by any means without my written authorization.