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German gender question

  Tags: Gender | German
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geoffw
Triglot
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United States
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 Message 1 of 5
26 November 2013 at 11:11pm | IP Logged 
The byline for the lead opinion piece on the main web page of FAZ right now ends with
the following sentence:

"Vielleicht holt sich schließlich nur Seehofers Abgesandter in Berlin ein blutige
Nase."

If "ein" is the correct form here according to standard grammar, I am very confused and
in need of clarification.

Any idea as to why this would be expressed this way, instead of "eine blutige Nase?" If
I were to make this sound more like colloquial speech I would say " 'ne blutige Nase,"
so it doesn't sound like it's colloquialism for poetic effect.

Thoughts?
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geoffw
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 Message 2 of 5
26 November 2013 at 11:14pm | IP Logged 
After posting the question above, I took a look at the piece itself, and quickly scanned
to the bottom, where I saw the final sentence of the piece:

"Und wie er sich am Ende womöglich eine blutige Nase holt."

As makes sense, but now I am further confused. This seems a bit too obvious to have been
a mistake.
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Bao
Diglot
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Germany
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 Message 3 of 5
26 November 2013 at 11:50pm | IP Logged 
That should be a typo.
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daegga
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Austria
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 Message 4 of 5
27 November 2013 at 6:26pm | IP Logged 
It seems like editors/proofreaders are too expensive to use them for online news.

Edited by daegga on 27 November 2013 at 6:31pm

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Fasulye
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Germany
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 Message 5 of 5
29 November 2013 at 9:11pm | IP Logged 
It is "die Nase" so it can only be "eine blutige Nase" because "ein" refers to masculinum and neutrum.

Fasulye


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