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2nd person plural and 2nd polite forms

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32 messages over 4 pages: 1 2 3
jalcalde
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Spain
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 Message 25 of 32
30 January 2006 at 10:34am | IP Logged 
About portuguese, I've found an important difference between Portugal and Brasil. Whereas it is true that the use of the third person is the sign of politeness in Portugal, in Brasil it is so common that the sign of politeness has become the use of "o senhor". Is there any Brazilian that can confirm my impression?
Thanks
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Alijsh
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 Message 26 of 32
10 October 2006 at 3:26am | IP Logged 
In Persian:

informal singular you: to (Fr, It, Es: tu; De: du)
formal singular you: shomâ
plural form for both: shomâhâ

As in French, all of them are conjugated with second person. to with singular and shomâ & shomâhâ with plural.

* We have also a very polite form for plural 3rd person: ishân

* (we) was also used instead of man (I) by people of high rank e.g. Kings

Edited by Alijsh on 12 October 2006 at 4:23am

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bohy1b
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 Message 27 of 32
20 October 2006 at 1:11am | IP Logged 
I thought that shoma could be both plural and singular. As in you can say both shoma or shomaha for 2nd person plural.

Also ma (we) is still used in quite a few places in Iran and Afghanistan.
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Valentine Lytv
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 Message 28 of 32
21 October 2006 at 2:15pm | IP Logged 
In Russian

The phrases «I ask you…» are for both cases (a group and a person) homophone but they are not homograph:

«Я прошу вас…» - for a group
«Я прошу Вас…» - for a person

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iieee
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 Message 29 of 32
24 March 2007 at 1:31pm | IP Logged 
I know this is an old thread, but I had to add that this is true in Turkish as well.

Sen-- you singular, informal
Siz-- you plural and formal singular

So it's not just an indo-European trait.
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annierooney
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 Message 30 of 32
23 May 2007 at 6:39pm | IP Logged 
I haven't read the books, but when "All Creatures Great and Small" was shown in the US on PBS, people in Yorkshire were still using thee, thou and thine. I think the events took place between and after the World Wars.   I don't know if it's still the case.
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peterlin
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 Message 31 of 32
04 June 2007 at 8:58am | IP Logged 
bohy1b wrote:
I thought that shoma could be both plural and singular. As in you can say both shoma or shomaha for 2nd person plural.

Also ma (we) is still used in quite a few places in Iran and Afghanistan.


AFAIK:

1. Technically, "shomaha" is probably "incorrect". I don't think I've ever seen it written, the "correct" form for 2nd pers. pl. being "shoma"

2. However, in modern colloquial Persian, "shoma" has practicaly became a 2nd pers. sg. pronoun, up to the point of often taking 2nd pers. sg. verbs; eg. shoma miduni 'you know', shoma bia 'come!' It's hardly ever used with reference to more than one person.

3. As alijsh wrote, "shomaha" is the unmarked 2nd pers. pl. pronoun in modern colloquial Persian.

4. In some Persoid lects spoken in Afghanistan "ma" IS the 1st. sg. pronoun (the 1st. pl. being eg. "ema")

5. The funny thing about the substitution of "ma" for "man" in modern standard Persian is that while it can serve as pluralis maiestatis, it is also used to downplay your importance as a sign of politeness.
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telephos
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 Message 32 of 32
28 September 2007 at 6:29pm | IP Logged 
administrator wrote:

Is this an Indo-European feature?


I don't think so. Neither Classical Latin nor Ancient Greek knows this distinction.


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