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My Wife and I

  Tags: Grammar | English
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21 messages over 3 pages: 1 2
Josquin
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 Message 17 of 21
28 June 2012 at 3:18pm | IP Logged 
Okay, the Oxford online dictionary has it also, so saying "thusly" didn't exist was a bit harsh. However, all dictionaries state that it's informal and non-standard English, and to my mind, adding the adverb marker to what is already an adverb sounds very strange. Again: prescriptive vs. descriptive grammar...

Be that as it may, I think we can all agree that "He invited my wife and I" isn't good English. But I recently even heard it in an episode of How I Met Your Mother, so it doesn't seem to be an uncommon mistake.
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schoenewaelder
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 Message 18 of 21
28 June 2012 at 4:34pm | IP Logged 
Thank you for the responses, and especially all those of you who felt able to vouch for my continuing robust mental health [Spanky].

It seems like I'm the only one who thinks it sounds better as "my Wife and I" though, so I shall convey the majority verdict of the court to my correctee.






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Hertz
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 Message 19 of 21
25 July 2012 at 8:03pm | IP Logged 
Your examples are interesting. By substituting other verbs for "let" it changes the character of the sentence:

My cousin Jim allowed my wife and me to borrow his cottage.
My cousin Jim took my wife and me to rent a movie.
My cousin Jim ordered the dog to sit.

It's definitely an infinitive form, but for sone reason

My cousin Jim let my wife and me to borrow his cottage

...sounds wrong. "Let" must be a grammatical exception.

As for the difference between "invited my wife and I" and "invited my wife and me," you can tell which is correct by reversing the order. "Jim invited I and my wife" is just plain bad.
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Ari
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 Message 20 of 21
09 August 2012 at 8:20am | IP Logged 
Hertz wrote:

My cousin Jim let my wife and me to borrow his cottage

...sounds wrong. "Let" must be a grammatical exception.

I know that in Swedish, there are three categories of these kinds of verbs: the ones that require "to" ("att" in Swedish), the ones that disallow it, and the ones for which both are correct. I suspect it's the same in English. So no infinitive "to" in "I let/watched/heard him go" or "I would/could/must go". However, you do need a "to" in "I told/wished for/asked him to go" and "I want/have to go".

However, I can't think of any in English where both are correct, even though this category is big in Swedish.
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mrwarper
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 Message 21 of 21
16 August 2012 at 7:14pm | IP Logged 
Umin wrote:
... To me personally, things can't be correct when nobody uses them anymore. I don't see why you always have to go around and tell people how to use their language.


When nobody uses them any more, things sound unusual. That doesn't make them incorrect if you still speak the same language.

As for why try to get people to use any language as established before they arrived-- it goes beyond labelling language uses as right or wrong. I feel there's something deeply wrong in breaking up with (going frontally against) precedents just for the sake of it, or out of plain ignorance, as it is usually the case. Nothing against real innovation, though.

Now, as English speakers are notably more resilient (or is it allergic?) to prescriptivism than others, I am immensely curious about what these 'rules' you're all talking about may be, and where to find them... is anyone trying to create some prescriptive body of sorts for English somewhere?


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