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Spanish preposition "de" in negatives

  Tags: Spanish
 Language Learning Forum : Questions About Your Target Languages Post Reply
13 messages over 2 pages: 1
KimG
Diglot
Groupie
Norway
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Speaks: Norwegian*, English
Studies: Portuguese, Swahili

 
 Message 9 of 13
20 July 2012 at 12:11pm | IP Logged 
I've been baffled by a similiar phenomenom in Portuguese, I think personally I'd never use the English sentence without a set form.
I saw what happened
I did not see anything of what have happened.

Wikitionary got an article on the usages of OF in English, 4. usage in the wiki got "subjective genitive", is this the form who's also present in Spanish, and other languages?
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Medulin
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Croatia
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 Message 10 of 13
20 July 2012 at 1:10pm | IP Logged 
In Portuguese, I think it's called partitive genitive.

Não foi nada bom.   here NADA BOM = not at all; It wasn't good at all.
Não comprei nada de bom. here NADA DE BOM = nothing good. I didn't buy anything good.


O que você tem feito de bom? = How (have) you been?
in Croatian we use genitive too in this question: što ima novoga?


O que tem de novo? // in Croatian: što ima novoga?
you ask this question when you enter the store and ask the shopkeeper about new items they got ;) [Brazilian Portuguese and Croatian in this case are direct/literal translation which works perfect]
(''de novo'' here is a genitive of novo, and should not be confused with the expression ''de novo'' again, anew [nanovo, ponovo in Croatian]).

Another famous example of the partitive genitive: Desta água não beberei. ;)

Edited by Medulin on 20 July 2012 at 1:23pm

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Serpent
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Russian Federation
serpent-849.livejour
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 Message 11 of 13
20 July 2012 at 1:23pm | IP Logged 
It's called the same in Russian :) Finnish has a separate partitive case:)
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Javi
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Spain
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 Message 12 of 13
22 July 2012 at 1:55am | IP Logged 
outcast wrote:
Spansh is my 2nd native language, but I don't understand this, from a
grammatical point of view, and it is killing me.

Consider the following:

Vimos lo que sucedió.
No vimos lo que sucedió.

Makes sense up to now. But...

Vimos todo lo que sucedió.
No vimos nada DE lo que sucedió.

Another example:

Hemos entendido todo lo que dijo.
No hemos entendido nada DE lo que dijo.

What the heck is that? Why is there a "de" inserted in the negative and not the
affirmative? I am only going by my personal use and what "sounds right", and what I
have heard in speech. I'm pretty sure that is standard usage.

Any linguist or professor, or just someone that has studied Spanish grammar deeply that
can elucidate to me what that is so, or even if it is just perhaps dialectal?

Thanks.


algo de lo que sucedió
un poco de lo que sucedió
bastante de lo que sucedió
nada de lo que sucedió
todo lo que sucedió


I can't see the affirmative vs. negative dichotomy, it's rather about the part and the
whole, where the nothingness goes with the part.
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outcast
Bilingual Heptaglot
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China
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Speaks: Spanish*, English*, German, Italian, French, Portuguese, Mandarin
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 Message 13 of 13
26 July 2012 at 8:34pm | IP Logged 
Interesting that in Serbian, Russian, and Finnish the genitive or partitives are used in negatives, where Romance uses the partitive "de".

Interesting what Medulin brings up about portuguese: in Spanish the use of "de" seems optional to me in such a situation "No compre nada (de) bueno", in fact I use no preposition there.

Is the preposition obligatory in portuguese in speech as well as prescriptive grammar? Most Portuguese textbooks at least before the advanced levels don't deal with this issue.


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