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Purification of the English language

  Tags: Purism | English
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27 messages over 4 pages: 13 4  Next >>
Chung
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 Message 9 of 27
13 July 2006 at 8:39am | IP Logged 
linguianima, you're about a 1000 years too late. :-P

It would be an interesting academic exercise to try to make English more "Germanic", but all of the modern Germanic languages have changed a lot since the Dark Ages. It's just too costly to implement this kind of change now.

But I hear that Icelandic is as close as you can get to a "pure" Germanic language. Give that a try. ;-)



Edited by Chung on 13 July 2006 at 8:40am

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Captain Haddock
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 Message 10 of 27
13 July 2006 at 10:33am | IP Logged 
The very thing you're talking about has a name: the inkhorn controversy. It
came up in the 17th century and split English intellectuals into two groups:
one that thought Saxon words should be used for new terms, and one that
liked making up new terms using Latin or Greek.

The Latinists won out, but not all their inventions survived in the language.
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RogueRook
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 Message 11 of 27
13 July 2006 at 12:53pm | IP Logged 
linguanima wrote:
I just feel that this language should one day gain back its identity among the Germanic family, and am curious at the same time. I bet the language would be more straightforward if it were that way, and didn't seem supersilious due to Latinisms.



Not trying to mock your Germanic romanticism, but you would ruin the language. It would become less straightforward, less transparent if you were to take all latinisms and greek roots away from it. Look at Icelandic: beautiful, but obscure.

It is not going to happen anyway. People won't start learning Old English.

Maybe you find comfort in the fact that you can have simple discussions using only Germanic and no "foreign" words but not vice versa. So after all the English languages basement, to put it that way, is still Germanic. The 100 story skyscraper on top of it is Greco-Franco-Roman and what not. Why not embrace this diversity?

Edited by RogueRook on 13 July 2006 at 12:58pm

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Saint
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 Message 12 of 27
13 July 2006 at 4:11pm | IP Logged 
Hehe, I think the basement being Germanic and the 100 story skyscraper being the rest is a little bit excessive. A large amount of the language is still Germanic. Let's say the first 35 stories are Germanic.
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jeff_lindqvist
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 Message 13 of 27
13 July 2006 at 4:27pm | IP Logged 
OK, it worked with Icelandic (less speakers to convince!) but for English I suppose that it would take quite some time so get people used to the pure* words. If it ever would happen at all.

* Pure is of course of Latin origin. :D
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Saint
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 Message 14 of 27
13 July 2006 at 4:30pm | IP Logged 
I think it's interesting but almost utterly impossible to achieve.
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CaitO'Ceallaigh
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 Message 15 of 27
14 July 2006 at 1:34pm | IP Logged 
Saint wrote:
I think it still maintains its Germanic identity. Just have a normal conversation with somebody around you and try to identify the words of Latin origin. There will be far fewer than there are words of Germanic origin.


I'm not a linguist so I can't really debate this with you; however, I was in an English linguistics class last fall, and our professor (Ph.D.) told us that 70% of English vocabulary comes from French.

I believe the grammatical structure of the language is more Germanic, but much of the vocabulary comes from French (Latin).

He explained that this is one reason why English has developed its global dominance. He said it's a growing tapestry of a language, with influences spanning the world.

Take for example the word "Robot" (Russian, Czech). We even have words that come from Basque. I just can't think of what they are right now.

He also noted that there is no English academy to decide which words should be permitted or not, unlike French or Spanish, for example.

This keeps the language flexible and open to change.

I certainly find your original thought interesting, though. What would English be like without these outside influences? It wouldn't be so popular on a global scale. I wonder what we would speak, then?


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Alfonso
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 Message 16 of 27
14 July 2006 at 2:43pm | IP Logged 
After all, according to what linguists say, there is no such a thing like "pure languages". All languages influence each other though time. Germanic languages come from an older Indo-European language. It's also the same for Latin and Greek. So who can say which is the purest state of a language?


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