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GER - Sub. clause construction question

  Tags: Syntax | German
 Language Learning Forum : Questions About Your Target Languages Post Reply
Kyle Corrie
Senior Member
United States
Joined 4830 days ago

175 posts - 464 votes 

 
 Message 1 of 4
14 March 2012 at 1:22am | IP Logged 
Hello all,

My problem is this. I'm trying to find out if anyone knows the specific rule or what
this is actually called.

I imagine most people familiar with German sentence constructions know that typically
when you use a subordinating conjunction then you send the conjugated verb to the end
of the clause.

However, in some situations, you don't. I was wondering if anyone would be able to tell
me what this is called or if they know what the rule is so I can identify it by name.

For example:

(Right way) [...], weil ich ihm das hätte sagen können.

instead of

(Wrong way) [...], weil ich ihm das sagen können hätte.

So... does anyone know why it is constructed like this and/or what it is called? I can
only guess that the conjugated verb must be next to the infinitive. Not sure though.

Edited by Kyle Corrie on 14 March 2012 at 1:26am

1 person has voted this message useful



Majka
Triglot
Senior Member
Czech Republic
kofoholici.wordpress
Joined 4658 days ago

307 posts - 755 votes 
Speaks: Czech*, German, English
Studies: French
Studies: Russian

 
 Message 2 of 4
14 March 2012 at 1:57am | IP Logged 
The best explanation in German is here : http://www.mein-deutschbuch.de/lernen.php?menu_id=123#ausnah men - please copy and paste without space.



Edited by Majka on 14 March 2012 at 1:58am

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squeeze
Newbie
United Kingdom
Joined 4877 days ago

32 posts - 48 votes
Speaks: English*
Studies: German

 
 Message 3 of 4
14 March 2012 at 3:46pm | IP Logged 
@Majka nice resource, thanks.

@Kyle Corrie

When there is a Double Infinitive at the end of a subordinate clause instead of the finite verb going at the end, it must be inserted in front.

The only exception being when the auxilliary is lassen, hören or sehen and their infinitive is not representing a past participle.
1 person has voted this message useful



outcast
Bilingual Heptaglot
Senior Member
China
Joined 4950 days ago

869 posts - 1364 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*, English*, German, Italian, French, Portuguese, Mandarin
Studies: Korean

 
 Message 4 of 4
14 March 2012 at 9:25pm | IP Logged 
Yes, the rule is when there are two infinitives, then the conjugated verb must come before twe two infinitives. This will occur with modal auxiliaries conjugated in a compound tense, that already have a dependent verb (mostly the Konjunktiv II, since there there is only one past tense and it is a compound tense), and the future tense with werden + dependent verb + auxiliary infinitive.

What confused me at one point is remembering this rule does not apply in the passive voice, since a construction like *past participle + worden* is not a double infinitive, thus "ist/sind" still goes at the end and not before the dependent verbs.




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