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Slurred languages vs clear languages

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55 messages over 7 pages: 1 2 35 6 7  Next >>
tractor
Tetraglot
Senior Member
Norway
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Speaks: Norwegian*, English, Spanish, Catalan
Studies: French, German, Latin

 
 Message 25 of 55
17 May 2012 at 12:40am | IP Logged 
Pisces wrote:
There are no pauses between words in any language spoken at normal speed.

True enough, but some languages have clearer boundaries between syllables (and thus between words) than others.

Pisces wrote:
"Words" are a complicated convention. People think it's very odd that the Romans wrote without
spaces between words, but there isn't any "natural reason" to put spaces.

It's a complicated convention if you look at phonology and phonetics only, but as soon as you try to analyse a
language in terms of syntax, parts of speech etc., "word" emerges as a necessary and obvious unity. The Roman
grammarians, and before them the Greek, recognized this. I guess that even primitive, illiterate people and cavemen
would have some notion of 'words'. Physical objects are identified by words even if they are slurred together in rapid
speech.

Edited by tractor on 17 May 2012 at 12:42am

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IronFist
Senior Member
United States
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 Message 26 of 55
18 May 2012 at 6:41am | IP Logged 
Pisces wrote:
Gabriel Anton wrote:
Quote:
There are no clear/slurred languages,


In your estimation; every language makes equal distinction between words/sounds within a
sentence or phrase? Such precision! Clearly evidence of the divine.



There are no pauses between words in any language spoken at normal speed. (I'm not claiming you say this; I'm just saying this because many people aren't aware of it.) (Source: Basic neuroscience textbook I read some years ago) "Words" are a complicated convention. People think it's very odd that the Romans wrote without spaces between words, but there isn't any "natural reason" to put spaces.


I read somewhere (a psychology book?) that most people think there are spaces between words in spoken speech, but there are not. If you look at the waveform of an audio file of someone speaking English and ask a person where they think the word boundaries are, they are not where the valleys in the waveform are.

They said it's a common misconception. The reason you recognize word boundaries is because you know the language, not because they're audibly apparent.
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IronFist
Senior Member
United States
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Speaks: English*
Studies: Japanese, Korean

 
 Message 27 of 55
18 May 2012 at 6:42am | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:
Pisces wrote:
There are no pauses between words in any language spoken at normal speed.

True enough, but some languages have clearer boundaries between syllables (and thus between words) than others.

Pisces wrote:
"Words" are a complicated convention. People think it's very odd that the Romans wrote without
spaces between words, but there isn't any "natural reason" to put spaces.

It's a complicated convention if you look at phonology and phonetics only, but as soon as you try to analyse a
language in terms of syntax, parts of speech etc., "word" emerges as a necessary and obvious unity. The Roman
grammarians, and before them the Greek, recognized this. I guess that even primitive, illiterate people and cavemen
would have some notion of 'words'. Physical objects are identified by words even if they are slurred together in rapid
speech.


Agreed.

So why don't Japanese or Thai use spaces between words?

Japanese would be at least 572.38% easier to learn to read if there were spaces between words. Little kids books have them.
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vonPeterhof
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Russian FederationRegistered users can see my Skype Name
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 Message 28 of 55
18 May 2012 at 9:50am | IP Logged 
IronFist wrote:
tractor wrote:
Pisces wrote:
There are no pauses between words in any language spoken at normal speed.

True enough, but some languages have clearer boundaries between syllables (and thus between words) than others.

Pisces wrote:
"Words" are a complicated convention. People think it's very odd that the Romans wrote without
spaces between words, but there isn't any "natural reason" to put spaces.

It's a complicated convention if you look at phonology and phonetics only, but as soon as you try to analyse a
language in terms of syntax, parts of speech etc., "word" emerges as a necessary and obvious unity. The Roman
grammarians, and before them the Greek, recognized this. I guess that even primitive, illiterate people and cavemen
would have some notion of 'words'. Physical objects are identified by words even if they are slurred together in rapid
speech.


Agreed.

So why don't Japanese or Thai use spaces between words?

Japanese would be at least 572.38% easier to learn to read if there were spaces between words. Little kids books have them.

Little kids' books also tend not to have kanji or katakana, and the alternation of the three scripts makes spaceless texts somewhat easier to parse. Of course, this in itself is a poor justification for having to learn ~2000 of those bloody things, but that is a whole other topic.

As for words and spaces, I think orthographic conventions and traditions play a bigger role in determining where we put spaces in writing than pure grammar. In cultures with a long tradition of writing with spaces the idea of what is a word and what is not is strongly shaped by those orthographic conventions and people no longer notice their arbitrariness. For example, the Kazakh particle "men" is written as a separate word when its meaning is closer to "and", but as a suffix/ending when its meaning is closer to "with". When I first learned it I didn't find it surprising, since I was used to the fact that in Russian "and" and "with" are different words, with the latter requiring a change in the word's ending. But years later, when I was studying Japanese I learned of the particle "to" which can also mean both "and" and "with", but since Japanese doesn't have spaces between words there was no difference in notation and the two meanings were essentially the same particle. After that the Kazakh differentiation struck me as arbitrary, possibly introduced by Russian-speaking philologists designing the Kazakh Cyrillic alphabet and calqueing concepts from Russian (but then again, I haven't seen any Kazakh texts written in the Arabic script before the Revolution, so this may have started earlier).

I think I remember reading somewhere about Sapir's work in designing orthographies for some Na-Dene languages. As soon as he taught the previously illiterate native speakers the letters representing their phonemes they would start writing down their sentences, knowing "instinctively" where to put the spaces between the words, and even going as far as arguing with him when he suggested making the words smaller. Since the Na-Dene languages are polysynthetic, a lot of the words that they wrote looked more like sentences from an Indo-European point of view. There's an interesting discussion here about why a Chukchi polysynthetic word like Təmeyŋəlevtpəγtərkən ('I have a fierce headache') is a word, rather than a sentence with no spaces between words.

Edited by vonPeterhof on 18 May 2012 at 9:53am

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IronFist
Senior Member
United States
Joined 6438 days ago

663 posts - 941 votes 
Speaks: English*
Studies: Japanese, Korean

 
 Message 29 of 55
18 May 2012 at 6:42pm | IP Logged 
SoareyousayingtheonlyreasonwethinkEnglishiseasiertoreadwiths pacesisbecauseweareusedtothem? Similarlycouldwejustaseasilygetusedtoreadingitlikethis?


edit - ignore the space between the "s" and "p" in that first sentence. There's a forum limit to how many characters can occur together and I seem to have hit that limit.

Edited by IronFist on 18 May 2012 at 6:43pm

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LaughingChimp
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Czech Republic
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346 posts - 594 votes 
Speaks: Czech*

 
 Message 30 of 55
18 May 2012 at 7:15pm | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:

It's a complicated convention if you look at phonology and phonetics only, but as soon as you try to analyse a
language in terms of syntax, parts of speech etc., "word" emerges as a necessary and obvious unity.


That's probably correct, but it doesn't necessarily correspond to spelling. For example Czech children have to learn where to make spaces in writing, because it doesn't come naturally to them, they write fewer spaces than the orthography requires.

IronFist wrote:
SoareyousayingtheonlyreasonwethinkEnglishiseasiertoreadwiths pacesisbecauseweareusedtothem? Similarlycouldwejustaseasilygetusedtoreadingitlikethis?


Latin was spelled phonemically, so you could just sound out every letter, but you could probably get used to reading English without spaces as well.

Edited by LaughingChimp on 18 May 2012 at 7:29pm

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geoffw
Triglot
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United States
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 Message 31 of 55
18 May 2012 at 7:19pm | IP Logged 
LaughingChimp wrote:

Latin was spelled phonemically, so you could just sound out every letter, but you could probably get used to read English without spaces as well.


Yes. And it would make it significantly harder to learn as a foreign language, at the least, without any apparent advantage to be had in the information age.
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LaughingChimp
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Czech Republic
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 Message 32 of 55
18 May 2012 at 7:33pm | IP Logged 
geoffw wrote:

Yes. And it would make it significantly harder to learn as a foreign language, at the least, without any apparent advantage to be had in the information age.


I think that French could be much easier to learn without the extra spaces and letters.


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