berabero89 Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 4644 days ago 101 posts - 137 votes Speaks: English, Amharic* Studies: Spanish, Japanese, French
| Message 1 of 3 23 December 2012 at 3:17am | IP Logged |
After looking at several forums, I learned that certain French verb tenses are pronounced
the same (conditional and future) in many places so that "parlerai" (parleré) and
"parlerais" (parlerè) are merged (parleré). I was wondering if this lack of distinction
exists in non-verbs. For example, could "français" be pronounced as "francé"? or "lait"
as "lé"? Or is this rule limited to verbs?
Edited by berabero89 on 23 December 2012 at 3:17am
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Arekkusu Hexaglot Senior Member Canada bit.ly/qc_10_lec Joined 5383 days ago 3971 posts - 7747 votes Speaks: English, French*, GermanC1, Spanish, Japanese, Esperanto Studies: Italian, Norwegian, Mandarin, Romanian, Estonian
| Message 2 of 3 23 December 2012 at 3:42am | IP Logged |
The rule applies to the sounds é and è in word-final position, regardless of the kind of
word it is.
Note that this rule doesn't apply everywhere in the world; é and è are always
distinguished in Québec French, for instance.
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tarvos Super Polyglot Winner TAC 2012 Senior Member China likeapolyglot.wordpr Joined 4709 days ago 5310 posts - 9399 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, Swedish, French, Russian, German, Italian, Norwegian, Mandarin, Romanian, Afrikaans Studies: Greek, Modern Hebrew, Spanish, Portuguese, Czech, Korean, Esperanto, Finnish
| Message 3 of 3 24 December 2012 at 9:21am | IP Logged |
It indeed depends on where you are. I usually distinguish them, but if I am lazy I might
thunk them all in as "é". They are also distinguished in Belgium if memory serves
correctly.
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