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Does Spanish have a neuter gender

  Tags: Gender | Grammar | Spanish
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outcast
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 Message 1 of 41
10 August 2012 at 2:52am | IP Logged 
My estimate is that about half of the Spanish learning resources I have pored over say there is a neuter gender, and half (particularly those which are a more of an overwiew), say it does not. I have always been really surprised about this seeming lack of agreement amongst linguists or language course developers.

Is there any official stance on this by the RAE (Real Academia)? Or by any other linguistic body?

For those that have no knowledge of Spanish, when an abstract noun is formed from an adjective, it is assigned neither to the masculine nor the feminine gender:

lo básico
lo ideal
lo genuino
lo malo
lo hermoso

French and Portuguese clearly assign such nouns to the masculine gender ('o bom' / 'le bon' ). I'm not sure about Italian but I would predict it is like French/Portuguese. Romanian is said to have a neuter gender, but then it is explained that it is in reality marked by the masculine in the singular and feminine in the plural, so no '3rd form' exists, which it does in Spanish.

I am not familiar with Catalan, Mirandese, Walloon, or other minority romance languages to say if a similar phenomenon to this in Spanish exists.

So... Is it a neuter gender or not? At this point, your opinions are just as good as those of the so-called "experts", who can't seem to agree.
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GRagazzo
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 Message 2 of 41
10 August 2012 at 4:07am | IP Logged 
I think it is a neuter gender since it uses neither el nor la. There are other words
such
as aquello, esto, and eso which are all neuter. And of course there is ello which is
neuter form of él and ella. My Spanish teacher told me that Spanish only uses the
neuter
for abstract ideas and that it is not very common.

Italian for the most part is like French/Portuguese. But it acts like Romanian for
certain nouns for example il dito(the finger) which is masculine in the singular
becomes le dita(the fingers) which uses le(feminine plural) but the ending
a(which is the feminine singular).
Another example is il uovo(the egg) and le uova(the eggs)

Edited by GRagazzo on 10 August 2012 at 4:12am

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tractor
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 Message 3 of 41
10 August 2012 at 7:25am | IP Logged 
Yes it's a neuter gender. I think the grammarians and linguists agree about that. What they probably don't agree about is what best way to present grammar is. Therefore, some of them won't mention the neuter at all for pedagogical reasons.

"Normal" nouns are always either feminine or masculine, or both. You won't find any nouns listed as neuter in the dictionary.

It's not easy to find your way around the RAE web site but if you go to the Dicccionario panhispánico de dudas here http://lema.rae.es/dpd/, then click "artículos temáticos, then "pronombres personales tónicos" or "pronombres parsonales átonos", you'll find neuter pronouns listed.

Catalan also has a neuter gender.

Edited by tractor on 10 August 2012 at 7:34am

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Zetko86
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 Message 4 of 41
10 August 2012 at 3:27pm | IP Logged 
Interesting, but I wonder if we say that Spanish has a neuter gender, when uses "lo" as article, what about some Italian words like:
Lo zio (the uncle)
Lo studente (the student)
Should we say that Italian too has a neutral gender? This words are considered masculine in Italian, even if the article is different, because Italian only has two grammatical genders (at least so they teach at school).
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Serpent
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 Message 5 of 41
10 August 2012 at 5:30pm | IP Logged 
lo zio or lo sport are nouns, while lo malo, lo hermoso are adjectives turned into nouns. lo is used for purely phonetical reasons in Italian, kinda like in Spanish el can be used with feminine nouns (el agua, but las aguas, el agua fría).
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jeff_lindqvist
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 Message 6 of 41
10 August 2012 at 5:38pm | IP Logged 
If "lo" nouns are considered masculine as regards adjective inflection etc. (e.g. lo zio - il vecchio zio, right?), I'd just say that the article is different (for whatever reasons).
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outcast
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 Message 7 of 41
11 August 2012 at 1:25am | IP Logged 
Italian uses lo or l' purely for reasons of euphony. It is not the same phenomenon as with the Spanish adjetival nouns. Spanish doesn't really bother with phonetical harmony the way French, Portuguese, or Italian do.

And grammatically, "lo" nouns in Spanish can have no plural forms.
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sipes23
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 Message 8 of 41
11 August 2012 at 1:48am | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:
Yes it's a neuter gender. I think the grammarians and linguists agree about that. What they
probably don't agree about is what best way to present grammar is. Therefore, some of them won't mention the
neuter at all for pedagogical reasons.


I'm not really a traditional student of Spanish, so take what I say however you like.

I learned Latin and then basically engineered my knowledge of Spanish out of what I know about Latin and
context. Forms like "lo bueno" feel neuter to me on a gut level. Latin works this way too—and I know that just
'cuz Latin did it doesn't mean Spanish necessarily does it the same.

But that's my instinctive read on it.

(Also, Latin neuter nouns in the plural ended with "a" so if a few stragglers in Italian do, that makes enough sense
to me. Especially since the neuter gender feels pretty tied up with masculine in Latin.)



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