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Is there any evidence of (pre)proto-IE?

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Marc Frisch
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 Message 9 of 18
04 November 2011 at 12:56am | IP Logged 
Aquila123 wrote:
I think there is one difficulty with the concept of preprotolanguages. At the time when such languages should have been spoken, during and just after the last ice-age, there were perhaps not distinctly separate languages in Eurasia, but rather a languages continuum that gradually changed from far west to far east.


Actually, assuming that such a language continuum existed is equivalent to assuming that there once was a common human language that then evolved into different languages.
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Iversen
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 Message 10 of 18
04 November 2011 at 11:01am | IP Logged 
Not necessarily. The languages we speak now could have evolved from a continuous sequence of continua reaching all the way back to something that hardly could be called a language. Our reason for speaking about separate languages is that we can see clear differences between neighbouring speech comunicaties - and those differences can arise because of migrations/conquest or because several centres have radiated their influence in different directions, and the speech variants of even close neighbours may therefore develop in different directions. In some cases there will be a zone with a mix of influences, but with the tendency of Homo sapiens to organize hierarchical and territorial societies chances are that there will be some kind of clashes between standards, even if the local populations continue to speak something in between.

On the other hand it is possible that all the Indoeuropean languages go back to the speech of one small and compact group. We simply don't know (and may never know).


Edited by Iversen on 29 May 2012 at 1:48am

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William Camden
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 Message 11 of 18
23 November 2011 at 12:08pm | IP Logged 
In central England, there is a place called Tardbigge, if I recall the name rightly. It is thought that the placename may be derived from a non-Indo-European language, spoken before the Celts arrived, as it does not seem to be derived from either a Celtic language or from Anglo-Saxon.
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verbalnerd
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 Message 12 of 18
28 May 2012 at 6:29am | IP Logged 
Most of the way we think of historical linguistics is still dominated by the visual image of a family tree/genealogy, a
tree with branching nodes. Biology is moving towards a more complicated and nuanced way of understanding
what species are, what the (often more fuzzy than we thought) boundaries between them are like, how they are
related to one another, and how they evolve.

The same sort of thing is going to have to happen with historical linguistics. For instance, merely saying that
English is a Germanic language with a bunch of French vocabulary tacked on is not quite right. It might be more
correct to say that several important organs of French origin were transplanted into the body of English.

Or, with a question that fascinates me, although I have as yet no expertise to bring to it--the relation between
Indo-European and Uralic. I suspect that the story is something like: Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Uralic did not
spring directly from some common ancestor that we'll call Proto-Indo-Uralic. But they did interact enough (if we
agree with the theory that they originated in a location near to one another) that we can say that some PIE organs
were transplanted into PU, and traces of these transplants live on in the descendants. And that that's no "less" of a
relationship than the whole direct-descendence thing.

PS to William Camden: It's a common, though as I understand altogether unsubstantiated (though also unrefuted)
theory that Basque represents a language that was present in Europe before the arrival of the "Indo-Europeans".
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vonPeterhof
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 Message 13 of 18
28 May 2012 at 9:13am | IP Logged 
Chung wrote:
As another example, imagine if linguists somehow had no attestations of Gothic and Old Norse. Indeed would they even fathom the presence of such languages? What kind of reconstruction would we then see for Proto-Germanic? Would it be heavily influenced by what we observe in Icelandic as it's considered to be a conservative language?
The book "The Horse, the Wheel and Language" by David Anthony (its first part is a very good introduction to IE studies and historical linguistics for non-linguists, written by an archaeologist in an attempt to reconcile archaeologists and linguists) actually gives a few examples of this. I read it a long time ago, so I don't remember everything, but I do recall him giving an example of a hypothesized feature of Proto-Germanic that was later confirmed by the discovery of an inscription in a very archaic form of either Old High German or Old Saxon. There was also an experiment in historical linguistics where someone tried to reconstruct "proto-Romance" while pretending that no attestations of Latin existed. The result that they got was actually quite close to actual Latin, but some of the features of actual Latin were not "discovered", most notably the differentiation of vowel length.
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a3
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 Message 14 of 18
06 July 2012 at 8:57pm | IP Logged 
vonPeterhof wrote:
There was also an experiment in historical linguistics where someone tried to reconstruct "proto-Romance" while pretending that no attestations of Latin existed. The result that they got was actually quite close to actual Latin, but some of the features of actual Latin were not "discovered", most notably the differentiation of vowel length.
I'd be really interested to see that reconstruction of "proto-Romance".
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sacha
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 Message 15 of 18
06 July 2012 at 9:22pm | IP Logged 
Proto-Indo-European is by definition as far back as can be reconstructed for Indo-European. If something were reconstructed further back, it would not be "pre-proto," it would mean that proto-IE were reconstructed to an earlier point than before.

I remember in comparative/historical linguistics class how they used linguistics clues to pinpoint the geographical origin of Indo-European to the Caucausus or western Asia. The language can't be traced further back than that, but genetics might pick up from there to give clues where the first speakers of Indo-European came from, which would suggest the earlier origins of the language.

In my comparative/historical linguistics class, the text we used was written by a professor at a university in Papua New Guinea for use by students there, and all the examples used were from Melanesian and Australian aboriginal languages. The point was to show how the systematic techniques developed for reconstructing proto-Indo-European and tracing the Indo-European family tree worked equally well for reconstructing other proto-languages and language family trees. We practiced those techniques with those completely unfamiliar languages to analyze which languages were related and how closely and how long ago they diverged.

Edited by sacha on 06 July 2012 at 9:39pm

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sacha
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 Message 16 of 18
06 July 2012 at 9:24pm | IP Logged 
Oops. I keep hitting "quote' when I mean to edit a post.

Edited by sacha on 06 July 2012 at 9:26pm



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