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Native speakers’ feelings about the lang.

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34 messages over 5 pages: 1 24 5  Next >>
mrwarper
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 Message 17 of 34
04 February 2012 at 3:42am | IP Logged 
LaughingChimp wrote:
mrwarper wrote:
Ironfist is talking about the perfect past tense, which is formed by "had" (past of "have") + the past participle of the main verb.

But should (would...) + have is past, not perfect.

Right, my mistake, I was thinking about too many things at once while typing. Past perfect is made up of "have" conjugated in the present (have/has) + the past participle of the main verb. Adding a conditional in front of it is optional, etc.

LaughingChimp wrote:
mrwarper wrote:

Because subjects must be represented by subject pronouns (I, [s]he, we, they) and not object pronouns (me, him, her, us, them).

Then "I" and "me" are obviously not subject/object pronouns.

Is that a joke? "I" is a subject pronoun, "me" is its object counterpart. Each pronoun representing a part of a multiple subject must be a subject pronoun. You can still replace the whole multiple subject with a single subject pronoun ("we" in the example) if that's what you are talking about, but that's another story.

Edited by mrwarper on 04 February 2012 at 3:43am

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IronFist
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 Message 18 of 34
04 February 2012 at 8:15am | IP Logged 
The correct sentence would be:

"That concert sounded cool. I should've gone to it."

A lot of people say "I should've went." That's incorrect.

I hear this for a lot of verbs. Another common example is:

"I haven't ate yet" (correct is "I haven't eaten yet").

It's like nails on a chalkboard to my ears. It sounds wrong.   I understand what they're saying, though.

Edited by IronFist on 04 February 2012 at 8:15am

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Ari
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 Message 19 of 34
04 February 2012 at 11:06am | IP Logged 
IronFist wrote:
It's like nails on a chalkboard to my ears. It sounds wrong.   I understand what they're saying, though.

Me too! Sorry, that should be "I too!".

Here's an important warning: Never learn French. You'd probably go crazy. The incorrect "Jean et moi" is really widespread and I don't think I've ever, even once, heard or seen the obviously correct "Jean et je".

For me, that's okay, as I make a distinction between "different" and "wrong", but for you it'd be a nightmare having to tell all French speakers that they are wrong!
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Solfrid Cristin
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 Message 20 of 34
04 February 2012 at 2:43pm | IP Logged 
Ari wrote:
Never learn French. You'd probably go crazy. The incorrect "Jean et moi" is really widespread and I don't think I've ever, even once, heard or seen the obviously correct "Jean et je".


Why is "Jean et je" obviously correct? I have never ever heard that used.
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FELlX
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 Message 21 of 34
04 February 2012 at 3:02pm | IP Logged 
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
Ari wrote:
Never learn French. You'd probably go crazy. The incorrect "Jean et moi" is really widespread and I don't think I've ever, even once, heard or seen the obviously correct "Jean et je".


Why is "Jean et je" obviously correct? I have never ever heard that used.

I don't know which one is actually correct, but one thing is certain: you will sound very strange by saying "Jean et je" to French people.
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mrwarper
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 Message 22 of 34
04 February 2012 at 3:06pm | IP Logged 
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
Ari wrote:
Never learn French. You'd probably go crazy. The incorrect "Jean et moi" is really widespread and I don't think I've ever, even once, heard or seen the obviously correct "Jean et je".


Why is "Jean et je" obviously correct? I have never ever heard that used.


Same reasons I gave about IronFist's English example. But I'm not so sure the "rule" still applies, for I speak no French.
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LaughingChimp
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 Message 23 of 34
04 February 2012 at 5:02pm | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:

Right, my mistake, I was thinking about too many things at once while typing. Past perfect is made up of "have" conjugated in the present (have/has) + the past participle of the main verb. Adding a conditional in front of it is optional, etc.

That's even more wrong.
I went - past
I have gone - present perfect
I had gone - past perfect
I should have gone - past

"Have" has a different meaning with modal verbs. (that's why many native speakers misspell it as "of")

mrwarper wrote:


LaughingChimp wrote:
mrwarper wrote:

Because subjects must be represented by subject pronouns (I, [s]he, we, they) and not object pronouns (me, him, her, us, them).

Then "I" and "me" are obviously not subject/object pronouns.

Is that a joke? "I" is a subject pronoun, "me" is its object counterpart. Each pronoun representing a part of a multiple subject must be a subject pronoun. You can still replace the whole multiple subject with a single subject pronoun ("we" in the example) if that's what you are talking about, but that's another story.


No, I'm not joking. You can't declare that something is X and then claim that all native speakers speak incorrectly, because X is supposed to be used differently. If people don't use I/me as subject/object pronouns then they are not subject/object pronouns.

Edited by LaughingChimp on 04 February 2012 at 5:20pm

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tommus
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 Message 24 of 34
04 February 2012 at 6:47pm | IP Logged 
LaughingChimp wrote:

I should have gone - past

"Have" has a different meaning with modal verbs. (that's why many native speakers misspell it as "of")

No. I think "of" comes from the shortened way people quickly pronounce "have" in that type of sentence. It has been progressively shortened to the sound of "I should hav gone" to "I should hv gone" to "I should of gone", and then they spell it incorrectly from the pronunciation.


Edited by tommus on 04 February 2012 at 8:39pm



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