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German Without Toil - "schlechter Laune"

  Tags: Syntax | Assimil | Grammar | German
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pfn123
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Australia
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 Message 9 of 21
14 October 2011 at 1:38pm | IP Logged 
I don't speak German, but since the difference is a final 'r', perhaps if you just speed up and speak the phrase very very quickly, no one will be sure which you used, and everyone listening will be happy :D hehehe
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Kyle Corrie
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United States
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 Message 10 of 21
14 October 2011 at 4:22pm | IP Logged 
After my embarrassing guess I've tried to find a rule that would provide an answer.

I've been digging through 'The Popular Educator: Vol. 1' for a few hours this morning
and the best I have found is, as Iverson already alluded to, a Latin rule of
dependency.

"One noun governs another in the genitive case."
This rule simply means that of two nouns which are connected with each other by a
relation of dependence, the noun which is dependent on the other noun must be put in
the genitive case.

Obviously I can see there is just one noun in 'Wir waren müde und schlechter Laune.',
but it leads me to believe in a similar German grammar rule with adjective-noun
connections that I can't find.
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Josquin
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 Message 11 of 21
14 October 2011 at 8:33pm | IP Logged 
As Iversen correctly said, this construction is called genitivus qualitatis - genitivus absolutus is a rather unfortunate name because this genitive is not dissolved from the rest of the sentence like a Latin ablativus absolutus or a Greek genitivus absolutus.
I checked my DUDEN grammar book and it clearly states that this use of the genitive case is a genitivus qualitatis. It gives more examples like "der Mann ist mittleren Alters" or "der Mensch ist guten Willens". It also states that this construction belongs to elaborate language. Outside of this level of style it's bound to idioms: "Der Genitivus Qualitatis wird hauptsächlich in gehobener Sprache verwendet; außerhalb dieser Stilschicht ist sein Vorkommen an feste Wendungen gebunden".
I think this answers the question. It has nothing to do with prepositions or obscure adjective-noun relations but is a grammatical phenomenon of its own.
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gammarayson
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 Message 12 of 21
15 October 2011 at 12:11pm | IP Logged 
Interesting discussion, but if "Ich bin guter/schlechter Laune" is old-fashioned/literary style what would the current
modern, colloquial translation of "I'm in a good/bad mood" be? Ich habe gute/schlechte Laune?
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Josquin
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 Message 13 of 21
15 October 2011 at 1:38pm | IP Logged 
gammarayson wrote:
Interesting discussion, but if "Ich bin guter/schlechter Laune" is old-fashioned/literary style what would the current
modern, colloquial translation of "I'm in a good/bad mood" be? Ich habe gute/schlechte Laune?

Exactly!
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palfrey
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Canada
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 Message 14 of 21
17 October 2011 at 10:42pm | IP Logged 
Actually, the Assimil lesson is not without some explanation. In my copy, the notes read:
Quote:
(6) Die Laune: temper, humour, mood. Schlechter Laune: ("of bad temper"): bad-tempered.
Notice the "of" in "of bad temper". Cherel could have been more explicit, but I think he is telling us that it is the genitive case (cf. "John's house" vs. "the house of John"). Further, there are somewhat similar constructions in English, e.g., one could say:
    He is cheerful.
    He has a cheerful disposition.
    He is of a cheerful disposition.
The third one is fairly close to "We were tired and of (a) bad temper". My guess is that, rightly or wrongly, Cherel thought we would notice the similarity to English and be able to work it out for ourselves :)
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Jinx
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 Message 15 of 21
18 October 2011 at 8:10pm | IP Logged 
A quick tip for understanding such constructions: if it's the genitive case, you can often make it clearer to yourself by mentally adding an "of" (because, after all, that's exactly what the genitive implies: possession).

Doing that, we get "We were of bad mood" which obviously sounds awkward, but at least it makes the intended meaning clear.

A similar construction that makes for a good example is the commonly heard "Meiner Meinung...", meaning "In my opinion" and literally translated (using my trick) as "Of my opinion..." Again, it's not pretty, but it makes the intention of the phrase instantly clear. I hope this helps.

Edited by Jinx on 18 October 2011 at 10:30pm

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montmorency
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 Message 16 of 21
18 October 2011 at 10:27pm | IP Logged 
Jinx wrote:
A quick tip for understanding such constructions: if it's the genetive
case, you can often make it clearer to yourself by mentally adding an "of" (because,
after all, that's exactly what the genetive implies: possession).

Doing that, we get "We were of bad mood" which obviously sounds awkward, but at least
it makes the intended meaning clear.

A similar construction that makes for a good example is the commonly heard "Meiner
Meinung...", meaning "In my opinion" and literally translated (using my trick) as "Of
my opinion..." Again, it's not pretty, but it makes the intention of the phrase
instantly clear. I hope this helps.



This also works with some of the genitive-taking prepositions:

"Wegen" - because of, or on account of
"trotz" - in spite of
"außerhalb/innerhalb" - outside of, inside of
"(an)statt" - instead of.

"Wahrend" (during) is less obvious, but you can think of it as "in the course of".




By the way: "I am of the opinion that ....", or "we are of the same opinion", is fairly
consistent with German usage, so the "...meiner Meinung..." should not really sound too
strange.


What I have never fully understood is the insistence (by teachers of grammar, anyway),
on "meiner meinung nach" and never to put the "nach" before the "meiner".

I think I have heard native speakers saying it the "wrong" way round, but only
rarely. Perhaps it depends on exactly how the sentence is structured.





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