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Mistakes in Michel Thomas courses

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Doitsujin
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Germany
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Speaks: German*, English

 
 Message 41 of 52
11 July 2011 at 8:45am | IP Logged 
gammarayson wrote:
Also, his insistence that the G ending in Wohnung etc be pronounced is a bit annoying.

The G in Wohnung ['vo:nuŋ] is not pronounced like a regular G, but as a "velar nasal" /ŋ/ as in English sing.

Elexi wrote:
I always understood 'Das Haus wäre verkauft worden" and "Das Haus wäre verkauft gewesen" to be two ways of saying essentially the same thing - a distintion without a difference.


Both verb forms are not identical:

Das Haus wäre verkauft worden = Konjunktiv Plusquamperfekt [Aktiv] (active voice)
Das Haus wäre verkauft gewesen = Konjunktiv Plusquamperfekt [Zustandspassiv] (passive voice)

Forget about "Das Haus wäre verkauft gewesen". It's a theoretical form that you'll hardly ever encounter in real life. The best translation for "the house would have been sold" is "das Hause wäre verkauft worden."
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Elexi
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United Kingdom
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Speaks: English*
Studies: French, German, Latin

 
 Message 42 of 52
11 July 2011 at 10:36am | IP Logged 
Many thanks for that clarification.

A couple of questions: I realise that the verb forms are not identical (In fact I didn't say they were), but does the passive/active distinction in German change the translation into English (which, admitting that my English grammar is shaky, but 'the house would have been sold' is in the passive voice itself, is it not?) - and does it make Thomas' construction a 'mistake' as opposed to a grammatical rarety that would not be found in speech?

Again, thanks in advance for your wisdom.

Edited by Elexi on 11 July 2011 at 11:02am

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Doitsujin
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Germany
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Speaks: German*, English

 
 Message 43 of 52
11 July 2011 at 5:11pm | IP Logged 
Elexi wrote:
[...]but does the passive/active distinction in German change the translation into English [...]

Not really, and if a student translated "the house would have been sold" as "das Haus wäre verkauft gewesen" in a German morphology paper, the student could certainly argue that this verb form theoretically exists and could be interpreted in English as "the house would have been sold."
However, since the MT course aims at teaching conversational German, "das Haus wäre verkauft worden" would have been a better choice since there's no point in exposing the students to verb forms that they'll most likely never hear and never use themselves.

Elexi wrote:
[...]'the house would have been sold' is in the passive voice itself, is it not?)

It is indeed a passive form, but that's more or less irrelevant in this case since German verb tenses don't always match English verb tenses.
For example, you can use German Perfekt verb forms in sentences that would require Past tense verb forms in English and Reported Speech is expressed with Konjunktiv verb forms in German and Past tense verb forms in English.

Elexi wrote:
[..]and does it make Thomas' construction a 'mistake' as opposed to a grammatical rarety that would not be found in speech?

In terms of morphology he was correct, however in terms of teaching idiomatic German he wasn't.

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gammarayson
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Denmark
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Speaks: English*, Danish
Studies: German

 
 Message 44 of 52
11 July 2011 at 6:09pm | IP Logged 
You can read exactly what Michel Thomas taught about the German tenses if you follow this link:-
http://www.michelthomas.co.uk/downloads.php, then go to pages 35 and 36 of the transcript of the Advanced
Course.
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Cainntear
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Senior Member
Scotland
linguafrankly.blogsp
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Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic
Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh

 
 Message 45 of 52
11 July 2011 at 7:01pm | IP Logged 
Doitsujin wrote:
However, since the MT course aims at teaching conversational German,
Elexi wrote:
[..]and does it make Thomas' construction a 'mistake' as opposed to a grammatical rarety that would not be found in speech?

In terms of morphology he was correct, however in terms of teaching idiomatic German he wasn't.

MT isn't a course in "conversational German" in the sense of idioms and phrases. It a course in German grammar taught through the spoken mode. He expressly avoids covering many idiomatic constructions.

In principle, it's the right idea as it reduces the complexity to a manageable level, but in practice he sometimes picked really odd examples. His Romance language course get a lot of flack for such unnatural-sounding language as "it is not acceptable for me to do it that way".

There's some justification to the criticism, but I still think it's by far the best thing currently available for beginners.
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Doitsujin
Diglot
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Germany
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Speaks: German*, English

 
 Message 46 of 52
11 July 2011 at 8:40pm | IP Logged 
Cainntear wrote:
MT isn't a course in "conversational German" in the sense of idioms and phrases.

What I meant by "conversational German" was actually the opposite. I.e. simple sentence constructions without idioms and phrases.
However, it seems to me that in the Advanced German course he sometimes unintentionally confused learners by unnecessarily differentiating between both English and German near-synonyms.
For example, he gives both: "The house has gotten sold" and "The house has become sold" for "Das Haus ist verkauft worden," which most translators would simply translate as "The house has been sold" unless they wanted to put emphasis on the fact that someone finally bought the house.
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Random review
Diglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
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Speaks: English*, Spanish
Studies: Portuguese, Mandarin, Yiddish, German

 
 Message 47 of 52
11 July 2011 at 10:51pm | IP Logged 
Doitsujin wrote:
Cainntear wrote:
MT isn't a course in "conversational German" in
the sense of idioms and phrases.

What I meant by "conversational German" was actually the opposite. I.e. simple sentence
constructions without idioms and phrases.
However, it seems to me that in the Advanced German course he sometimes unintentionally
confused learners by unnecessarily differentiating between both English and German
near-synonyms.
For example, he gives both: "The house has gotten sold" and "The house has become sold"
for "Das Haus ist verkauft worden," which most translators would simply translate as
"The house has been sold" unless they wanted to put emphasis on the fact that someone
finally bought the house.


But I found the use of the English "get passive" very useful for getting a handle on
the
German passive. Of course the "get-passive" is very restricted on a pragmatic level in
English, which is why the German passive is usually translated by the English true
passive (with "to be"), but on the level of syntax the correspondence with the German
passive is close enouigh to be very useful and not at all confusing. The English true
passive, in contrast, *is* confusing as a tool for learning the German passive
precisely *because* it translates both "Das Haus wäre verkauft worden" and "Das
Haus wäre verkauft gewesen" as "the house would have been sold" (in contrast, "the
house would have gotten sold" can only mean the first). And don't worry, you will not
come away with a false sense of the frequency of these constructions because you are
only meant to go through the course once (although the course is designed so that if
your attention wanders you will start to get things wrong and so have to backtrack to
where you lost the thread), it should only take somewhere between 2 days and 2 weeks,
and then you are meant to move on to new things (and perhaps give it to a friend, or
sell it on ebay, or something). Yo can't look at this like you would other courses, I
mean I love Assimil and find FSI useful if boring, but you are meant to LEARN the
content of an Assimil course over a sustained period of time (and worse still drill the
FSI content to the point of overlearning!), this means mistakes are learned (perhaps
even fossilized if drilled a lá FSI!) and so are very serious. With Michel Thomas it
simply is not an important issue.



Edited by Random review on 11 July 2011 at 10:52pm

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unzum
Diglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
soyouwanttolearnalan
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371 posts - 478 votes 
Speaks: English*, Japanese
Studies: Mandarin

 
 Message 48 of 52
16 July 2011 at 3:11pm | IP Logged 
I wrote a review recently for the Mandarin course and I got a bit annoyed about the pronunciation errors. I'm wondering now whether I overreacted a bit. Here's some of what I said:

Quote:
The tone explanations in the first 6 tracks were adequate, although I had been spoiled a bit by the extremely thorough FSI pronunciation module. However, beyond the simple explanations for all four tones, there was hardly any explanation on the tones in combination, for example, when the 3rd tone is followed by a 1st, 2nd, 4th or neutral tone it is only pronounced as a half 3rd tone (only goes down, doesn't come up).

There is an explanation of when bu4 is followed by another 4th tone e.g. bu4 shi4, the bu4 changes to the 2nd tone, so, bu2 shi4; but for some reason the teacher never explains the tone change when a 3rd tone is followed by another 3rd tone! (FYI the first 3rd tone changes to a 2nd tone, i.e. wo2 hao3) This leads to the bizzare situation when the American teacher is telling you to say two 3rd tones but the Chinese teacher is saying 2nd tone, 3rd tone. This is only going to confuse the student, especially if they haven't studied Chinese before, and perhaps they won't even realise and will carry on pronouncing it incorrectly. The point is, this is a very basic rule that students should be taught AS SOON AS they encounter it.

There is another mistake in CD 2, track 12 when the American teacher says that xiang3 is pronounced like xian2. Only looking at the spelling this would appear to be correct but in fact when the sound 'ia' is followed by 'n' it is pronounced differently, more like 'ee-eh' and 'ia' followed by 'ng' is pronunced more like 'ee-ah'. So another pronunciation explanation that will at best confuse the student and at worst instill bad habits.


In the end the main reason why I stopped using this course was the pace. It's so slow and really boring ... I struggled to stay awake quite often.

I would be interested in hearing what opinion those of you who used this course have.


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