10 messages over 2 pages: 1 2
Suzumiya Diglot Groupie VenezuelaRegistered users can see my Skype Name Joined 4894 days ago 43 posts - 64 votes Speaks: Spanish*, English Studies: Japanese
| Message 9 of 10 26 July 2011 at 2:47am | IP Logged |
Since French conjugates every ver agreing with the person, I think we could omit always the pronoun when writting because the verb's conjugation tell us the subject, even though it's not official. The principal problem I see why French does not omit the pronouns is because the pronunciation is almost the same in every person.
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| Spiderkat Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 5813 days ago 175 posts - 248 votes Speaks: French*, English Studies: Russian
| Message 10 of 10 26 July 2011 at 8:29am | IP Logged |
Suzumiya wrote:
Since French conjugates every ver agreing with the person, I think we could omit always the pronoun when writting because the verb's conjugation tell us the subject, even though it's not official. The principal problem I see why French does not omit the pronouns is because the pronunciation is almost the same in every person. |
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No, some conjugated endings are identical and because of that we can't omit them whether it's written or spoken. For instane...
In the first group the first and the third forms in the indicative present conjugate the same way, and those two are identical to the imperative form. Same forms in the subjonctive present.
In the second and third groups the first and second forms in the indicative present conjugate the same way, and those two are identical to the imperative form. Same forms in the subjonctive present.
So what would you understand if I said "parle lentement afin que comprenne mieux"?
Will it be...
"je parle lentement afin qu'il comprenne mieux"
"il parle lentement afin que je comprenne mieux"
"parle lentement afin que je comprenne mieux"
"parle lentement afin qu'il comprenne mieux"
And I won't even talk about how strange and awful it would sound without those pronouns.
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