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Lucas Pentaglot Groupie Switzerland Joined 5168 days ago 85 posts - 130 votes Speaks: French*, English, German, Italian, Russian Studies: Mandarin
| Message 17 of 55 16 November 2010 at 5:24pm | IP Logged |
s_allard wrote:
Gusutafu wrote:
And the issue is not merely whether it "helps", but whether etymology has any sort of
synchronos relevance at all. The anser is that of course it has. Each word does not
exist in a vacuum and writing does not fill the sole purpose of recording the spoken
language. Then we would all switch to IPA in an instant. |
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I think you are mixing up two things here. An etymologically based writing system does
not mean that users are conscious of the historical trajectory of the words. How many
people are aware of the fact that the circumflex in hôtel indicates the origin in
hostel? Very few. And, above all, what is the relevance of that factoid? My answer is
none whatsoever. The suffix -ish is used in English as a diminutive (coldish, warmish).
Who cares where is came from. Etymological knowledge is not a prerequisite for the
mastery of a language.
Words do not exist in a vacuum. Actually, they exist in a complex web of relationships
that of course have a history. The issue here is that in my opinion, that history is
irrelevant to the contemporary functioning of the system. |
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After having posted my response to Gusutafu, I thougt "oh no, I forgot to answer the
second sentence"!
Thank you for your response then, that's exactly what I meant.
:)
1 person has voted this message useful
| simonov Senior Member Portugal Joined 5590 days ago 222 posts - 438 votes Speaks: English
| Message 18 of 55 16 November 2010 at 6:17pm | IP Logged |
First of all, I never piped a word about "etymology", because I also thought that was totally irrelevant.
s_allard wrote:
Contrary to what has been stated here, there is a lot that can be changed in French spelling. I highly recommend the wiki article on the question, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reforms_of_French_orthography.
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I did read it and I agree with you, it doesn't go quite far enough.
s_allard wrote:
Again, I suggest people read the wiki article on the question before making wild statements: http://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rectifications_orthographiques_ du_fran%C3%A7ais_en_1990#R.C3.A9sum.C3.A9_des_modifications.
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Read that one, too.
s_allard wrote:
Here are three examples that have been a source of useless head-scratching for both native and foreign speakers of French.
Firstly, the plurals of nouns ending in -al that become either -als or -aux. The most well known example is cheval - chevaux. But we have festival - festivals.
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Sorry, mate, that is not a spelling problem but a lexical one. Would you dream of saying: les chevals, les baux (pluriel de 'bal'?
Juste like you say: les vitraux (not regular vitrails like les rails), les travaux etc.
In these cases pronunciation tells us the difference.
What bugged me was: hibou, bijou, caillou, chou etc. taking an x instead of an s. Why? Same pronunciation as 'les sous etc.'.
s_allard wrote:
Secondly, past participles agree in gender and number with a preceding direct object. For example: la table que j'ai faite, les robes que j'ai achetées.
The suggestion here is to make the participle invariable as in Spanish (la mesa que he hecho).
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But you say 'la table que j'ai faite' in French, not 'la table que j'ai fait'.
All right, it wouldn't be too difficult to change that habit. And I fully agree, rules about past participle endings are a bit of a nightmare.
s_allard wrote:
There are many other things that could be changed. Why do we say vous dites and vous faites when vous disez and vous faisez would be much more logical?
In fact, French grammatical spelling could use some major housecleaning to bring the written language in line with contemporary spoken usage.
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That of course is a contradiction : vous faites, vous dites is still contemporary usage, as far as I know. Or do you really say: vous faisez quoi ce soir? Vous disez?
And do you also propose to change English plurals: childs, mouses, gooses, oxes etc.? There is a limit to housecleaning I think.
3 persons have voted this message useful
| Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 6012 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 19 of 55 16 November 2010 at 7:30pm | IP Logged |
Gusutafu wrote:
This is of course complete bunk. Etymology is highly relevant even in a strictly synchronic perspective. Current related words are related precisely because of common ancestors. Etymological spelling makes those links more obvious. You can of course get by without knowing about these links, but it may help. The most obvious example is perhaps est <-> être. |
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A child of three knows "est" and "être" in the spoken form, therefore the circumflex is irrelevant to language "in the raw". The orthography here only serves to help you remember the orthography, and there is nothing sacred about spelling.
Gusutafu wrote:
Lucas wrote:
No, Caintear is right:
It's an illusion of help...and most people doesn't car about links between latin and
french. |
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I know it certainly helps me, so how can you state this?
And the issue is not merely whether it "helps", but whether etymology has any sort of synchronos relevance at all. The anser is that of course it has. Each word does not exist in a vacuum and writing does not fill the sole purpose of recording the spoken language. Then we would all switch to IPA in an instant. |
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No, because IPA is a (nearly) phonetic transcription, not a phonemic one. This is necessary because phoneme structures work differently in different languages.
French in IPA would be horrible, because wherever liaison occurs, a change in spelling would be required. This would be the case in many other languages where less extreme boundary effects occur. In a good many languages voicing of consonants is a non-phonemic distinction. In Gaelic, for example, the difference between T and D is that T is aspirated and D is non-aspirated. Both are normally unvoiced, but if you put an N in front, both become voiced by proximity. Writing in IPA would mean taking 2 letters T and D and multiplying them into 4 combinations, without achieving any additional clarity: /t/, /th/, /d/, /dh/
Instead, each language develops an orthography that is efficient for it in terms of phonemes. This is the reason why the circumflex is irrelevant -- it marks information not extant in the language itself, information which is foreign to French. It helps foreigners, but it confuses native speakers.
2 persons have voted this message useful
| simonov Senior Member Portugal Joined 5590 days ago 222 posts - 438 votes Speaks: English
| Message 20 of 55 16 November 2010 at 7:55pm | IP Logged |
Cainntear wrote:
The circumflex is unnecessary precisely because it's main function is to indicate etymology rather than pronunciation.
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You seem not to have read my point #1 [about "circumflex"].
a. pronunciation (by the way, s_allard, nôtre/vôtre are not pronounced like notre/votre, at least not in most French-speaking milieux. And âpre is certainly not pronounced appre in Canada either, nor âcre accre, opiniâtre, acariâtre etc.)
b. disambiguity
Cainntear wrote:
Good point about the -ET, Simonov, but there's still a phonetic confusion between the 3rd plural -ent and the adjectively -ent (different etc) that would be good to get rid of. My solution isn't any better than the current situation, true. But the problem is real and deserves a solution.
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Your solution? Dropping the N? Why did you not read what I wrote, tried to pronounce "ils chantet, riet, couret etc." Had you bothered to do so, you would have realised that your solution is no solution at all.
Why do you complain about a phonetic confusion between plural verbal "-ent" and adjectival "-ent" endings?
There is no problem: adjective -ent ending is always nasal /en/.
Verbs use personal suffixes: 3rd personal plural always ends in mute -nt [except when preceded by an O, because the combination -on is 'always' nasal /on/ ils ont, sont, font, reviendront.....].
So adjective 'exigent' will be pronounced /en/ at the end, while the ending 'ils exigent' will be mute.
We could of course get rid of the -nt and have zero personal endings for I, you (singular), he/she/it and they. The sound would be the same, but how would we then justify the 3rd person plural /on/ sound in 'sont, ont, font, vont and in the future?
And the 'liaison' problems we'd get into! No, much simpler to keep -ent for 3rd ppl.
4 persons have voted this message useful
| s_allard Triglot Senior Member Canada Joined 5431 days ago 2704 posts - 5425 votes Speaks: French*, English, Spanish Studies: Polish
| Message 21 of 55 16 November 2010 at 8:06pm | IP Logged |
simonov wrote:
s_allard wrote:
Here are three examples that have been a source of useless head-scratching for both native and foreign speakers of French.
Firstly, the plurals of nouns ending in -al that become either -als or -aux. The most well known example is cheval - chevaux. But we have festival - festivals.
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Sorry, mate, that is not a spelling problem but a lexical one. Would you dream of saying: les chevals, les baux (pluriel de 'bal'?
Juste like you say: les vitraux (not regular vitrails like les rails), les travaux etc.
In these cases pronunciation tells us the difference.
What bugged me was: hibou, bijou, caillou, chou etc. taking an x instead of an s. Why? Same pronunciation as 'les sous etc.'.
s_allard wrote:
Secondly, past participles agree in gender and number with a preceding direct object. For example: la table que j'ai faite, les robes que j'ai achetées.
The suggestion here is to make the participle invariable as in Spanish (la mesa que he hecho).
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But you say 'la table que j'ai faite' in French, not 'la table que j'ai fait'.
All right, it wouldn't be too difficult to change that habit. And I fully agree, rules about past participle endings are a bit of a nightmare.
s_allard wrote:
There are many other things that could be changed. Why do we say vous dites and vous faites when vous disez and vous faisez would be much more logical?
In fact, French grammatical spelling could use some major housecleaning to bring the written language in line with contemporary spoken usage.
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That of course is a contradiction : vous faites, vous dites is still contemporary usage, as far as I know. Or do you really say: vous faisez quoi ce soir? Vous disez?
And do you also propose to change English plurals: childs, mouses, gooses, oxes etc.? There is a limit to housecleaning I think.
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These points are well taken. It is true that normative pronunciation is in line with these arcane grammatical rules, i.e., most people say travaux, la table que j'ai faite, vous dites, etc. But--and this is the key point--these things are a constant source of mistakes and doubts, especially the question of the past participles. What you do hear is the common "mistakes" of native speakers, usually less educated of course, who will spontaneously use forms that are more logical but considered incorrect. Does "vous faisez" exist? It is an egregious mistake, but if you do a google on it, you might be surprised.
The past participle is the most common example of this kind of mistake, especially in the pronominal construction where the written form does always not have a distinctive pronunciation. Even chevals can be found.
It is true that I am advocating more than simple spelling reforms whereby we just tinker with some minor details. In fact, I would like to see some really serious attempts to eliminate many of the complexities and endless exceptions that characterize French grammar.
2 persons have voted this message useful
| s_allard Triglot Senior Member Canada Joined 5431 days ago 2704 posts - 5425 votes Speaks: French*, English, Spanish Studies: Polish
| Message 22 of 55 16 November 2010 at 8:25pm | IP Logged |
simonov wrote:
Cainntear wrote:
The circumflex is unnecessary precisely because it's main function is to indicate etymology rather than pronunciation.
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You seem not to have read my point #1 [about "circumflex"].
a. pronunciation (by the way, s_allard, nôtre/vôtre are not pronounced like notre/votre, at least not in most French-speaking milieux. And âpre is certainly not pronounced appre in Canada either, nor âcre accre, opiniâtre, acariâtre etc.)
b. disambiguity
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The role of the circumflex as an indicator of phonetic distinction has been steadily shrinking. Here is a quote from the Office québécois de la langue française:
"Aujourd'hui, certaines des distinctions phonétiques représentées par l'accent circonflexe ont disparu. Cet accent ne modifie pas la prononciation des lettres i et u; les rectifications de l'orthographe de 1990 ont d'ailleurs proposé qu'il disparaisse sur ces lettres. De plus, en France, la distinction entre a et â et entre è et ê est pratiquement disparue, même si elle est toujours vivante ici. On peut donc dire que l'accent circonflexe en fonction phonétique peut préciser la prononciation d'une voyelle, mais qu'il peut aussi simplement rappeler un trait de prononciation aujourd'hui disparu."
I do believe that the distinction vôtre/votre and nôtre/notre is slowly disappearing as well. If I recall correctly, there is no difference in pronunciation between these forms in the dialects of southern France.
1 person has voted this message useful
| kerateo Triglot Senior Member Mexico Joined 5647 days ago 112 posts - 180 votes Speaks: Spanish*, English, French Studies: Italian
| Message 23 of 55 17 November 2010 at 2:40am | IP Logged |
In a hundred years everyone will use the "cell phone texting ortography", I have to admit, I have a college degree and Spanish has a much easier ortography than french, but I have no clue how to use accents and I get confused sometimes with "S vs C vs Z" and "b vs v". If it wasnt for microsoft word I would be practically illiterate.
2 persons have voted this message useful
| Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 6012 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 24 of 55 17 November 2010 at 10:20am | IP Logged |
simonov wrote:
Cainntear wrote:
Good point about the -ET, Simonov, but there's still a phonetic confusion between the 3rd plural -ent and the adjectively -ent (different etc) that would be good to get rid of. My solution isn't any better than the current situation, true. But the problem is real and deserves a solution.
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Your solution? Dropping the N? Why did you not read what I wrote, tried to pronounce "ils chantet, riet, couret etc." Had you bothered to do so, you would have realised that your solution is no solution at all. |
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Ummm... I did, which is why I said it was a "good point" and why I said "my solution isn't any better than the current situation". I read your post and you were right, so I said so.
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Why do you complain about a phonetic confusion between plural verbal "-ent" and adjectival "-ent" endings? |
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Why wouldn't I? I makes reading harder.
Quote:
There is no problem: adjective -ent ending is always nasal /en/.
Verbs use personal suffixes: 3rd personal plural always ends in mute -nt [except when preceded by an O, because the combination -on is 'always' nasal /on/ ils ont, sont, font, reviendront.....].
So adjective 'exigent' will be pronounced /en/ at the end, while the ending 'ils exigent' will be mute. |
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Yes, but then you can't read "exigent" individually as a word, only as part of a phrase. This reduces the redundancy in the language. Redundancy allows us to understand despite errors; badly written, smudged or partly obscured words or to understand fragments of sentences where a page has been ripped or part of a sign obscured.
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We could of course get rid of the -nt and have zero personal endings for I, you (singular), he/she/it and they. The sound would be the same, but how would we then justify the 3rd person plural /on/ sound in 'sont, ont, font, vont and in the future?
And the 'liaison' problems we'd get into! No, much simpler to keep -ent for 3rd ppl.
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I didn't suggest dropping the ending, because I'm well aware of the issue of liaison. You could talk forever justifying the current state of affairs, but the fact of the matter is that -ent and -ent as distinct phonemes do complicate French orthography unnecessarily, and if it wasn't for the Académie Française enforcing the current model, natural reform would most likely have already taken place to distinguish the two.
I suspect that the first thing to happen would have been the reduction of 3rd plural -ENT to -ET.
The result would have been confusion with existing -ET words, as you say, but that would likely have been corrected quickly by a simple shift of your "un muet" to "un muét", which is consistent and obvious within the language as a whole.
I might be wrong about how it would have panned out, but in the absence of authorities, spellings generally change to follow the spoken language, and that N just doesn't match anything in the spoken language.
1 person has voted this message useful
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