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Gender articles for nouns - why?

  Tags: Gender | Grammar
 Language Learning Forum : Philological Room Post Reply
55 messages over 7 pages: 1 24 5 6 7  Next >>
Bao
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 Message 17 of 55
24 February 2011 at 11:17pm | IP Logged 
What they said, 'specially Chung.

The way I experience it, grammatical gender is part of a word, but a part you sometimes express in one way or another, and at other times you don't. Just as sometimes you say "I'm gonna" and at other times "I am going to".
In a way, it will never make sense, other than knowing that a long long time ago it developed because there were some factors that make it sensible at that time, and that some languages use it, for example to minimize the number of words you can expect to follow after an initial article or adjective form and people are just used to it.

In Spanish for example, (lexicalized) diminuitive and augmentative forms are used to express a lot of different things, like the size or importance of an object or event, the situation you're in or it gives hints at the speaker's opinion. Using different genders for different forms of what used to be the same word helps to avoid confusion.

Because people aren't always completely alert and focused adults at the height of their knowledge and ability, and still have to be able to communicate effectively most of the time, many or maybe all languages have incorporated tactics like this to minimize error.
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maurelio1234
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 Message 18 of 55
25 February 2011 at 11:11pm | IP Logged 
spirit splice wrote:
I mean how does a person look at a hammer and know that it's
masculine or feminine? It seems to make
no sense.


Nobody knows, that's the truth :) In fact, that is a very common misunderstanding: gender
is usually associated to words not to objects. Just taking German as an example, if I see
a word that ends with "-ung" I know for sure that it is feminine, no matter what it
represents.
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Monte Cristo
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 Message 19 of 55
25 February 2011 at 11:38pm | IP Logged 
You know what, earlier Anglophones probably thought the same thing... thus why we don't have any genders. :)
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Segata
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 Message 20 of 55
25 February 2011 at 11:50pm | IP Logged 
maurelio1234 wrote:
Just taking German as an example, if I see
a word that ends with "-ung" I know for sure that it is feminine, no matter what it
represents.


Der Schwung.

Damn native speakers, being all smug and stuff

Edit: According to google, there's also "Der Mao Tse Tung" ;)

Edited by Segata on 25 February 2011 at 11:52pm

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t123
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 Message 21 of 55
26 February 2011 at 12:09am | IP Logged 
Segata wrote:
maurelio1234 wrote:
Just taking German as an example, if I see
a word that ends with "-ung" I know for sure that it is feminine, no matter what it
represents.


Der Schwung.

Damn native speakers, being all smug and stuff

Edit: According to google, there's also "Der Mao Tse Tung" ;)


And der Sprung as well. Those are the only 2 common ones I know of and compound nouns using them of course.
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lingoleng
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 Message 22 of 55
26 February 2011 at 12:40am | IP Logged 
Segata wrote:
maurelio1234 wrote:
Just taking German as an example, if I see
a word that ends with "-ung" I know for sure that it is feminine, no matter what it
represents.


Der Schwung.
Damn native speakers, being all smug and stuff

This is not an exception, it is just that the rule is not entirely correct: Nouns using the affix -ung are feminin, root: acht, verb acht-en, noun Acht-ung.
Sprung or Schwung are not like this, it is just a coincidence that the root contains ng, schwing(en) -> Schwung, spring(en) -> Sprung.
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Marc Frisch
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 Message 23 of 55
26 February 2011 at 1:15am | IP Logged 
There is a fundamental difference between "illogical" spelling and "illogical" grammar. Spelling is nothing but a convention and unphonemic spelling systems could easily be changed to more phonemic systems (this has been done in Turkish when they switched to the Latin alphabet). In that case, one has to weigh the advantages (easier spelling) against the disadvantages (loss of the etymological information), but in the end it's a decision that the speakers of the language have to take.

It's very different when it comes to grammar. The grammar of a language just evolves in a certain way and there is no way to change it. Whether you like it or not, German has grammatical gender and if you wish to learn it, there is simply no way around it. Whether grammatical gender is a useful concept is disputable. I personally think that German could well do without it, but in other languages like Latin it has the effect that it significantly frees up word order, making the language more flexible.

I can relate to the troubles of learning illogical features of languages, and personally I'm more drawn to "logical" languages like Turkish or Persian, but if you want to read, say, German or Russian literature in the original version, you will just have to accept that they are not going to win an award for being exceptionally logical.

Maybe irregularities also are something that can make a language interesting. I tried to learn Esperanto before and it felt extremely sterile and "bloodless". Sure, I can appreciate its logical structure and regularity, but somehow it lacks character.
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Marc Frisch
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 Message 24 of 55
26 February 2011 at 1:22am | IP Logged 
spirit splice wrote:
I mean how does a person look at a hammer and know that it's masculine or feminine? It seems to make
no sense.


For a native speaker or someone who has learned the language well, it makes sense.


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