ScottScheule Diglot Senior Member United States scheule.blogspot.com Joined 5233 days ago 645 posts - 1176 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: Latin, Hungarian, Biblical Hebrew, Old English, Russian, Swedish, German, Italian, French
| Message 1 of 5 21 April 2014 at 11:30pm | IP Logged |
Two sentences:
Todavía no ha llegado el tren.
No ha llegado el tren todavía.
1. Both acceptable?
2. Both idiomatic?
3. If so, what's the difference, if any?
Gracias.
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luke Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 7210 days ago 3133 posts - 4351 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: Esperanto, French
| Message 2 of 5 22 April 2014 at 12:01am | IP Logged |
ScottScheule wrote:
Two sentences:
Todavía no ha llegado el tren.
No ha llegado el tren todavía.
1. Both acceptable?
2. Both idiomatic?
3. If so, what's the difference, if any?
Gracias. |
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What I learned from FSI Basic Spanish ... The emphasis in a case like this comes on the last part of the
sentence (although they said there are exceptions).
E.G.
Todavía no ha llegado el tren.
The train hasn't arrived yet.
No ha llegado el tren todavía.
The train still hasn't arrived.
I'm sure someone will disagree :)
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Elanguest Newbie Malta elanguest.com Joined 3871 days ago 19 posts - 26 votes Speaks: English*
| Message 3 of 5 02 May 2014 at 3:39pm | IP Logged |
It took me a while to realise that syntax is more free in Spanish because conjugation is more regimented. For
example, if you have two possible subjects in a sentence, in English you tell them apart by word order.
Rosa kissed the children.
The children kissed Rosa.
But in Spanish you can mix up the order because the subject becomes clear through conjugation and the
placement of the word "a," so you have more freedom to mix up the word order.
Rosa les besó a los niños.
Les besó a los niños Rosa.
(Rosa kissed the children.)
Los niños le besaron a Rosa.
Le besaron a Rosa los niños.
(The children kissed Rosa.)
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Medulin Tetraglot Senior Member Croatia Joined 4673 days ago 1199 posts - 2192 votes Speaks: Croatian*, English, Spanish, Portuguese Studies: Norwegian, Hindi, Nepali
| Message 4 of 5 02 May 2014 at 10:08pm | IP Logged |
Elanguest wrote:
It took me a while to realise that syntax is more free in Spanish because conjugation is more regimented. For
example, if you have two possible subjects in a sentence, in English you tell them apart by word order.
Rosa kissed the children.
The children kissed Rosa.
But in Spanish you can mix up the order because the subject becomes clear through conjugation and the
placement of the word "a," so you have more freedom to mix up the word order.
Rosa les besó a los niños.
Les besó a los niños Rosa.
(Rosa kissed the children.)
Los niños le besaron a Rosa.
Le besaron a Rosa los niños.
(The children kissed Rosa.) |
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Besar takes direct object object and not indirect object*, so one should use LO(S)/LA(S).
LE (f.), LES are incorrect, LE is tolerated only in Northern peninsular Spanish for male direct objects.
Rosa besó a los niños.
A los niños, los besó Rosa.
Los niños besaron a Rosa.
A Rosa, la besaron los niños.
Los niños besaron a Jorge.
A Jorge, lo/le besaron los niños.
---
*Except in partitive contexts: Rosa les besó las mejillas.
Edited by Medulin on 02 May 2014 at 10:19pm
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Elanguest Newbie Malta elanguest.com Joined 3871 days ago 19 posts - 26 votes Speaks: English*
| Message 5 of 5 05 May 2014 at 8:21am | IP Logged |
Noted, thanks. :)
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