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Me lleva vs me llevo

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Cainntear
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 Message 25 of 44
30 December 2010 at 12:40am | IP Logged 
s_allard wrote:
All of this leads may simply to say that the original example is simply an inverted form of:

Prepararme me lleva mucho tiempo.

To me this is a simple and elegant explanation. But obviously it's not the only one.

But (at the risk of complicating things) that requires the form "*prepararme me lleva mucho tiempo" to exist -- you can't have an "inverted form" of a form that doesn't exist, surely? (And the Spanish corpus doesn't seem to think it exists.)

Also, why would the infinitive need to be analysed as a noun here? I've only seen this sense of "llevar" with verbs. It seems most logical to me that if you can't replace it with a noun, it must be functioning as a verb.
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hypersport
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United States
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 Message 26 of 44
30 December 2010 at 1:04am | IP Logged 
Too many people get hung up on rules and constantly asking why, like they're trying to make it make sense with their own language.

All this talk about indirect object, which is the subject, etc.

Making it way too complicated.

All you have to do in this case is accept the fact that llevar works like gustar here and you're done. Get used to it, it's how it's spoken.   

I'm a native English speaker and I couldn't explain half of the grammar that we use, I just know how we speak. No big deal either.

I remember early on when I was first learning Spanish and I wanted to know why this and why that. Pretty soon I just started to accept how people spoke and that was that. If it's how they speak, it's good enough for me.

Like I've said before, you have to have rules to get you going but pretty soon you have to focus on what you're hearing and what you're reading. That is if the goal is to actually speak the language with native speakers.   


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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 27 of 44
30 December 2010 at 1:22am | IP Logged 
Cainntear wrote:
s_allard wrote:
Let's go back to the very original example. Here,
I would like to erase everything I said above and start from scratch, but I will leave
it for the historical record.

Me lleva mucho tiempo prepararme.

What is the subject of "lleva"? I claim it is "prepararme". Why? Because the above
phrase can be inverted into:

Prepararme me lleva mucho tiempo.

Now I have no reason to say that's wrong, but I do not recall ever having seen any
sentence with the infinitive in that position.


Ok, ealier I said that I haven't encountered an infinitive used as a subject with
object pronoun attached to it, but a while a go I've seen examples in the web:

El prepararme para esta competencia hizo que realizara cambios en mi vida.
Preparing myself for this competition made me carryout changes in my life.

El prepararme con anticipación me permitió demostrar que el objetivo no era alcanzar la
cima..
Preparing myself with anticipation allowed me to prove that the objective was not to
reach the top...

But prepararme in these examples have an "el" prior to them, signalling that they're
nouns. This can't be said of this sentence in contention.

Me lleva mucho tiempo prepararme.
Preparme me lleva muche tiempo.

Changing the word order doesn't make the first phrase the subject, unlike English or
French:

Ramon recibio el premio.
Recibio Ramon el premio.
Recibio el premio Ramon
El premio Ramon recibio.

And even your inversion is not possible since the the sentence is a V+V construction
(llevar + prepararse) because there is no determiner before the second verb, like "el".


ratis wrote:
I really don't see why the action that takes a long time should NOT be
the subject? Everything else would fly in the face of reason, at least for linguists.
Try to see it in a more mechanical way - that's how grammar works.

Quote:

Infinitives as Subjects

(...) The italicized infinitives in the following Spanish sentences are examples of
subjects:
Fumar es peligroso. "Smoking is dangerous." OR "To smoke is dangerous."
Estudiar es necesario. "Studying is necessary." OR "To study is necessary."
Me gusta leer. "I like to read." OR "Reading pleases me." OR "To read pleases
me."
Nos disgusta trabajar. "We hate to work." OR "Working displeases us." OR "To
work displeases us."
Note that the subject of the sentence follows the conjugated verb when the verb is a
gustar verb. Also point out to students that an infinitive in Spanish can translate to
either an infinitive or a present participle in English.


There are 2 types of sentences in those examples, those that use a copular verb (ser)
and those that use a psych verb (gustar/disgustar). If the verb is ser, it's ok for
infinitives to be the subject without "el", in other cases, a determiner is needed to
disambiguate if the infinitive is governed by the main verb or if it is a noun argument
of the verb (subject or object).

Quoting an "authority" does not make their example right. In the above quote, it gives
examples of infinitives as subjects, such as :

Me gusta leer. "I like to read." OR "Reading pleases me." OR "To read pleases
me."

If "leer" is a subject here, then why translate as "I like to read"? and not just those
other two? It is because this is closer to the more grammatically faithful translation
which is "It pleases me to read.". It doesn't mean that "Reading pleases me." or "To
read pleases me." are incorrect translation, they're correct but have already undergone
transformation in English.

Juаn wrote:
s_allard wrote:
However, I still would argue that Spanish readily uses
the inverted subject order. For example, in:

Me gusta mucho bailar

What is the subject? I suggest it is bailar.


Bailar is the object of the verb gustar. The subject is "me", or "to me".


Juаn wrote:

Let's leave aside for a moment though grammatical and syntactic considerations and
review what the definition of subject is: the agent of an action.



Juаn wrote:

Me gusta el alemán.

Who is doing the liking? Sense-wise, it doesn't make sense to claim German is exerting
an action over me but rather the meaning of the sentence is that from my volition stems
to like German.


First, gustar is psych verb, so there is neither action nor actor, only experiencer
here. Second, actors and experiencers does not have to be the subject. Spanish allows
experiencers to be direct objects ("me" ) since they are passive and affected by the
subject, which is "el alemán". As tractor already said, the more faithful translation
is "German pleases me" rather than "I like German.".


Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 30 December 2010 at 2:21am

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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
Triglot
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New Zealand
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 Message 28 of 44
30 December 2010 at 1:43am | IP Logged 
ratis wrote:
Juаn wrote:

In fact, "Me llevan mucho tiempo comer y prepararme" is mistaken, and "Sí, me lleva
mucho tiempo comer y prepararme" is correct.


It's the same as in English: You would say "it TAKES me a long time to eat and
prepare", not "it take...", just that in Spanish, you leave out the it.

I really don't see why the action that takes a long time should NOT be the subject?
Everything else would fly in the face of reason, at least for linguists. Try to see it
in a more mechanical way - that's how grammar works.


The action that takes a long time is "lleva". Do you mean that is the subject?
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Juаn
Senior Member
Colombia
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 Message 29 of 44
30 December 2010 at 4:18am | IP Logged 
Raчraч Ŋuɲa wrote:
As tractor already said, the more faithful translation
is "German pleases me" rather than "I like German.".


Perhaps from a grammarian's point of view. If you were translating a novel though and rendered "me gusta el alemán" as "German pleases me" your editor would probably replace you with another translator, as the feel of the phrase would be distorted.

Regarding the rest, the German language doesn't determine who likes it or not, as being an inanimate entity it is devoid of discrimination; it is I, the subject, upon whom the capacity for liking German and many other languages rests.

Language is not a logical construction but a carrier of meaning.
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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
Triglot
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 Message 30 of 44
30 December 2010 at 5:02am | IP Logged 
Juаn wrote:
Raчraч Ŋuɲa wrote:
As tractor already said, the more faithful translation
is "German pleases me" rather than "I like German.".


Perhaps from a grammarian's point of view. If you were translating a novel though and
rendered "me gusta el alemán" as "German pleases me" your editor would probably replace
you with another translator, as the feel of the phrase would be distorted.


You're right. Translations need to be idiomatic and have the right feel. So what is the
right translation of "German pleases me." to Spanish? I've been wanting to ask that for a
long time.
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s_allard
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 Message 31 of 44
30 December 2010 at 5:39am | IP Logged 
Cainntear wrote:
s_allard wrote:
All of this leads may simply to say that the original example is simply an inverted form of:

Prepararme me lleva mucho tiempo.

To me this is a simple and elegant explanation. But obviously it's not the only one.

But (at the risk of complicating things) that requires the form "*prepararme me lleva mucho tiempo" to exist -- you can't have an "inverted form" of a form that doesn't exist, surely? (And the Spanish corpus doesn't seem to think it exists.)

Also, why would the infinitive need to be analysed as a noun here? I've only seen this sense of "llevar" with verbs. It seems most logical to me that if you can't replace it with a noun, it must be functioning as a verb.


To say that something can't exist because it doesn't already exist in Google is a rather curious argument. Something can't exist because it doesn't already exist. Tell that to scientists.

That silly argument out the way, let's look at the real question: Can an infinitive function as a noun subject? Here is what a grammar reference has to say:

"El infinitivo en español ejerce funciones de SUSTANTIVO y por lo tanto puede funcionar como sujeto, complemento del verbo o modificador de nombre, adjetivo o adverbio.
¡OJO! En muchos de estos casos, mientras en español se usa un infinitivo, en inglés, se utiliza el gerundio y no el infinitivo.

Infinitivo como sujeto
(El) Beber vino tinto con moderación es bueno para el corazón. (Drinking red wine ...)
Llegar a un acuerdo con el sindicato solucionaría el problema. (Getting to an agreement ...)"

http://fis.ucalgary.ca/AVal/505/AGUsosInfinitivo.html

Notice the the determiner (El) for Beber is in parentheses, meaning that it is optional.

Here are some examples with pronominal verbs from the internet:

Vestirse es divertido
Vestirse es una necesidad
Prepararse es la clave del exito
Prepararse es la única vía para poder superar la entrevista

Here are some particularly interesting example with prepararse and llevar:

¿Como entrar a la universidad? Prepararse lleva años.

No protestes, prepararse lleva su rato.

Prepararse lleva tiempo; pero, probablemente, ahorra más tiempo del que ocupa.

In all three latter examples, the position of prepararse can be changed.

Examples of prepararme in this first position are rarer than prepararse which has a more generic meaning, but here is one:

Prepararme para la competencia me da un sentido de misión.

The real question here is whether these examples are grammatically correct. I think they are.
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s_allard
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 Message 32 of 44
30 December 2010 at 6:51am | IP Logged 
s_allard wrote:


Me gusta mucho bailar

What is the subject? I suggest it is bailar. Now, I translate this example as "I like to dance", but that doesn't prevent bailar from being the subject. This is why we would write:

Me gustan bailar y comer

for "I like to dance and eat"

To go back to the original example, suppose we were talking about two actions, I suggest:

Sí, me llevan mucho tiempo comer y prepararme.

Now, if someone thinks that the proper syntax should be

Sí, me lleva mucho tiempo comer y prepararme

That is a different interpretation that I don't follow.



Not being afraid of eating humble pie, I believe one can only learn from one's mistakes. I was roundly corrected for writing

Me gustan bailar y comer.
Sí, me llevan mucho tiempo comer y prepararme.

instead of with the the singular verb forms gusta and lleva. These examples only confirmed in the eyes of some people the fact that "bailar y comer" and "comer y prepararme" could not be the true subjects. And we know on what tangent the discussion has since gone off.

Well, after researching the subject a bit and talking to people, I want to revisit the issue. It's not black and white. If the subjects are plural, how come the verb is singular? Curiously enough, the same question pops up in French and English. In French we can say things like:

C'est de bons amis.
Ce sont de bons amis.
(They are good friends)

In English, somewhat like Spanish, one can hear things like:

Eating well and exercising is good for you.
Eating well and exercising are good for you.

There is many factors involved.
There are many factors involved.

But to come back to Spanish, my Gramática básica de la lengua española says:

"Con frecuencia, el verbo concuerda en singular con el sujeto más cercano, a pesar de que sean varios los sujetos coordinados.


Me gusta madruga y hacer ejecricio.
Lo que ha hecho y lo que ha dicho concuerda con su manera de ser.
Me gusta que madrugues y que hagas ejercicio."

In passing, one notes that the author speaks of "sujetos". So, was I wrong in my original examples? Yes, in the sense that the idiomatic form is with the singular with verbs connected with "y". No, in that the subjects are still considered plural. It depends on how one sees the subject, as from this quote:

"Cuando el verbo se refiere a un sujeto complejo (varios sujetos coordinados), la concordancia es en plural; en concurrencia de varias personas, la segunda se prefiere a la tercera, y la primera a todas.

"El calor y el examen le dejaron hecho polvo"

"Ellos y tú os habéis arriesgado mucho"

Puede, sin embargo, ir el verbo en singular con un sujeto complejo cuando el hablante lo entienda como totalidad.

"La carga y descarga está prohibida a estas horas"

http://www.cultureduca.com/leng_gramat_oracion04.php

I was wrong, but for a good reason.






Edited by s_allard on 30 December 2010 at 6:53am



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