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Guttural sounds in Dutch

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koba
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 Message 1 of 7
07 April 2011 at 4:29am | IP Logged 
I've been wondering lately why Dutch has such guttural and distinguished sounds in the language, while other Germanic languages such as German, Swedish, Icelandic keep a more "clean" sound. Specially the dutch "G", why is it so distinguished? I wonder if it was for the specific purpose of being unrecognizable to other Germanic dialects/languages. Take for example two similar expressions like "Guten Tag"(German) and "Goeden Dag"(Dutch). While written it's sort of decipherable for speakers of both languages, but while spoken they sound totally different.

I find it awesome and for me it makes Dutch all the more special to be learned, but at the same time, it arouses curiosity. So, my question is, has it always been like that or has it changed throughout the course of history?


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William Camden
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 Message 2 of 7
07 April 2011 at 12:20pm | IP Logged 
Danish seems more guttural to me than Dutch.

I find Dutch's lack of a hard g sound interesting, especially when it is such a major sound in closely-related German.

Edited by William Camden on 07 April 2011 at 12:21pm

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cntrational
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 Message 3 of 7
07 April 2011 at 12:36pm | IP Logged 
Dutch simply didn't go through the sound shifts that other Germanic languages did.

e.g., the Dutch g is [ɣ] a voiced velar fricative, all Germanic languages had this at one time, but most changed it to [ɡ] the voiced velar stop.
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koba
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 Message 4 of 7
08 April 2011 at 3:04am | IP Logged 
Hmm, interesting. But why is it that all the other Germanic languages changed their "g" while Dutch didn't?

PS: Another curiosity about Dutch is the "ij", you just don't see it in any other languages.
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cntrational
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 Message 5 of 7
09 April 2011 at 8:01pm | IP Logged 
It's just something that happens. Some languages change and some don't.

The Dutch ij is just [ɛi], which isn't uncommon at all.
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schoenewaelder
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 Message 6 of 7
15 April 2011 at 4:26pm | IP Logged 
I assumed it was because of the Spanish domination.

/CH/ is not really as different from /g/ as it first sounds. /k/ is a devoiced /g/ and the next sound you can make by moving the articulation point further back is /CH/.

The order is /s/->/sh/->/ch/->/k/->/CH/ with the tongue moving from the front of mouth to back and then throat (or /z/->/j/->/y/->/g/->/R/ for the voiced versions).

The Berliners pronounce their "g" as /y/ and the Swiss pronounce their "k" as /CH/.

Of course if it turns out to be nothing to do with the Spanish, then you have to start wondering if it was due to the sounds of the pre-indo-european settlers who lived in the region, and wether they left any lingering influence.

Or just accept that these things happen.
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JW
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 Message 7 of 7
15 April 2011 at 7:08pm | IP Logged 
schoenewaelder wrote:
I assumed it was because of the Spanish domination.

That is a very interesting theory and this is a very intruiging thread.

It certainly is striking to those who speak German and Dutch how similar the languages are in orthography, but how different they are in phonology--not only in pronunciation but also in rhythm and cadence.

However, I find the exact same phenomenon with Spanish/Portuguese...





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