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Cuban Spanish - why not?

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29 messages over 4 pages: 1 2 3 4 
Ayazid
Newbie
Czech Republic
Joined 5579 days ago
14 posts - 33 votes
Speaks: Czech*

 
 Message 25 of 29
29 May 2010 at 5:16pm | IP Logged 
ZeroTX wrote:
lynxrunner wrote:

I'm guessing the past perfect. Spaniards tend to say things like "Yo he comido" where
most of Latin America would say "Yo comi."


Ahh, okay. I've heard that they say that and it also makes no sense to me... at least not directly translated. I prefer the preterit.


Why it doesn't make any sense to you? It's basically like "I ate" and "I have eaten" in English.
1 person has voted this message useful



psy88
Senior Member
United States
Joined 5593 days ago
469 posts - 882 votes 
Studies: Spanish*, Japanese, Latin, French

 
 Message 26 of 29
30 May 2010 at 1:58am | IP Logged 
Re The Argentine accent: didn't Ernesto Guevara get his nickname "Che" because of his Argentine accent?
1 person has voted this message useful



ZeroTX
Groupie
United States
Joined 6137 days ago
91 posts - 100 votes 
Speaks: English*
Studies: Spanish

 
 Message 27 of 29
30 May 2010 at 3:15am | IP Logged 
Ayazid wrote:
ZeroTX wrote:
lynxrunner wrote:

I'm guessing the past perfect. Spaniards tend to say things like "Yo he comido" where
most of Latin America would say "Yo comi."


Ahh, okay. I've heard that they say that and it also makes no sense to me... at least not directly translated. I prefer the preterit.


Why it doesn't make any sense to you? It's basically like "I ate" and "I have eaten" in English.


Hmm, those two phrases have different meetings. "I ate at 9:00" is correct. "I have eaten at 9:00" ... means something entirely different (and would imply that at some point in the past, that person had consumed food at the 9:00 hour)... What they're saying is that in SPAIN, that tense is used IN PLACE OF the preterit. They don't mean the same thing, hence the statement by the previous poster.
1 person has voted this message useful



Javi
Senior Member
Spain
Joined 5983 days ago
419 posts - 548 votes 
Speaks: Spanish*

 
 Message 28 of 29
30 May 2010 at 9:57am | IP Logged 
ZeroTX wrote:
Ayazid wrote:
ZeroTX wrote:
lynxrunner wrote:

I'm guessing the past perfect. Spaniards tend to say things like "Yo he comido" where
most of Latin America would say "Yo comi."


Ahh, okay. I've heard that they say that and it also makes no sense to me... at least
not directly translated. I prefer the preterit.


Why it doesn't make any sense to you? It's basically like "I ate" and "I have eaten"
in English.


Hmm, those two phrases have different meetings. "I ate at 9:00" is correct. "I have
eaten at 9:00" ... means something entirely different (and would imply that at some
point in the past, that person had consumed food at the 9:00 hour)... What they're
saying is that in SPAIN, that tense is used IN PLACE OF the preterit. They don't mean
the same thing, hence the statement by the previous poster.


I don't think that judging the features of one language by the standards of another is
very sound, especially in this case where English itself lacks any coherent use of the
present perfect. Most of the time, it seems like Britons and Americans use it each one
in their own way. The same goes with Spanish, so if you consider three countries the
like of Mexico, Argentina and Spain, they all have different usages. In fact, the use
of the present perfect in Spain is more similar to the one found in the UK (in Englsih)
than to what you can hear in Argentina (in Spanish).
4 persons have voted this message useful



Sungchul
Tetraglot
Newbie
United States
Joined 5430 days ago
8 posts - 14 votes
Speaks: Korean
Studies: German, English*, French, Spanish
Studies: Haitian Creole

 
 Message 29 of 29
07 June 2010 at 7:23pm | IP Logged 
Javi wrote:
I don't think that judging the features of one language by the standards of another is
very sound, especially in this case where English itself lacks any coherent use of the
present perfect. Most of the time, it seems like Britons and Americans use it each one
in their own way. The same goes with Spanish, so if you consider three countries the
like of Mexico, Argentina and Spain, they all have different usages. In fact, the use
of the present perfect in Spain is more similar to the one found in the UK (in Englsih)
than to what you can hear in Argentina (in Spanish).


And then you also see in another major Romance language (French) where the preterit is obsolete and is strictly literary. French-speakers use the present perfect to express something that simply happened in the past.


3 persons have voted this message useful



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