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Italian/German: formal "you" = "she"

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indiana83
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 Message 1 of 8
27 June 2010 at 1:01am | IP Logged 
I just started learning Italian and noticed the formal "you" is "Lei" and "she" is "lei". In German, the formal "you" is "Sie" and "she" is "sie".

I never thought this was strange when learning German, I had just thought it was a coincidence or that the two words were homophones.

But now that I see the same pattern in Italian, I wonder if it is intentional? And the same doesn't hold true for French or Spanish, so this isn't a Romance-language thing?

Did Italian borrow this pattern from German, or is it just a coincidence, and the words "you" and "she" just happen to be homophones in both languages?
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Levi
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 Message 2 of 8
27 June 2010 at 2:52am | IP Logged 
Well, there is kind of a parallel with Spanish, in that Spanish also uses the third person to show politeness. "Sie sprechen" in German and "hablan" in Spanish are both ambiguous, meaning either "they speak" or "you (formal) speak" (formal plural in Spanish).

Edited by Levi on 27 June 2010 at 2:55am

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Bao
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 Message 3 of 8
27 June 2010 at 3:23am | IP Logged 
German: It's not 'she' it's 'they'.
This becomes obvious when you look at the verb tenses used with that form.
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indiana83
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 Message 4 of 8
27 June 2010 at 4:04am | IP Logged 
Bao wrote:
German: It's not 'she' it's 'they'.
This becomes obvious when you look at the verb tenses used with that form.


Oh, sorry, I misremembered then. I haven't studied German in five years.

I can rephrase the question as:

Why would two different pronouns be homophones? I know it doesn't matter that much, since within the context of a sentence you can determine based on the verb conjugations. But if you ask "who?" and someone just answers "sie" in German or "lei" in Italian without a verb, it leaves ambiguity, right?
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MäcØSŸ
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 Message 5 of 8
27 June 2010 at 8:00am | IP Logged 
indiana83 wrote:
Bao wrote:
German: It's not 'she' it's 'they'.
This becomes obvious when you look at the verb tenses used with that form.


Oh, sorry, I misremembered then. I haven't studied German in five years.

I can rephrase the question as:

Why would two different pronouns be homophones? I know it doesn't matter that much, since within the context of a
sentence you can determine based on the verb conjugations. But if you ask "who?" and someone just answers "sie" in
German or "lei" in Italian without a verb, it leaves ambiguity, right?


“Lei” in Italian is not plural. The equivalent of “Sie” would be “Voi”, but it’s considered extremely formal and is almost
never used.
When speaking to a male, even if the subject is the formal “Lei” verbs and adjectives will be declined in masculine.
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tractor
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 Message 6 of 8
27 June 2010 at 9:19am | IP Logged 
indiana83 wrote:
Why would two different pronouns be homophones? I know it doesn't matter that much, since
within the context of a sentence you can determine based on the verb conjugations. But if you ask "who?" and
someone just answers "sie" in German or "lei" in Italian without a verb, it leaves ambiguity, right?


Yes, it does. But, it's probably no more of a problem than the loss of thou and ye in English.
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atcprunner
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 Message 7 of 8
11 December 2010 at 8:43pm | IP Logged 
I was pondering this myself once. So, we have... "you go" and "she goes"
Italian: "Lei va" "lei va"
German: "Sie gehen" "sie geht"
but in egyptian arabic i have noticed this: you go(speaking to a male) taruwah and "she goes" is the same.

I don't know modern standard arabic, so I do not know if it is the same as Egypitan arabic. If anyone knows if about any hypothesis, or anything that could perhaps show a connection behind this, I would be happy to see it.
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cmj
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 Message 8 of 8
12 December 2010 at 11:12am | IP Logged 
The reasons for these developments are complex, particularly in German, but I can give you a rough overview.

Originally in Latin, tu was always used in the singular while vos was used in the plural, no matter who you were talking to. In the late empire, for reasons that are not entirely clear, the emperors began to be addressed by "vos" as a mark of their authority. This use of vos then spread to cover other important figures, such as the pope, and then gradually trickled down to other layers of society. Vos was used between equals, or by less powerful people addressing more powerful ones, while tu was the form used inside families, among close friends, and by more powerful people addressing less powerful ones.

Initially, this form was taken over by all the languages under discussion:

French: tu/vous
Spanish: tú/vos
Italian: tu/voi
German: du/ihr

In French, the tu/vous distinction is, of course, still used today. In the other languages, a further change occurred. It became common, as mark of added respect, to address important people in the third person. I've read that, at least in German, this was specifically the result of "ihr" becoming too widespread and the need for an even more polite form to address very important people. In German "ihr" was supplemented and then largely supplanted by er and sie (plural, not sure why). Er quickly took a turn for the worse and became a term of abuse, while sie persevered to become the polite pronoun, with the s being capitalized as a mark of respect (which you used to do with the d of du as well, at least in correspondence).

In Italian and Spanish a similar evolution occurred. So, for instance, in Spanish very important people were addressed as Vuestra Merced ("Your Grace", technically feminine) along with the accompanying third person forms: e.g. "Is your Grace hungry?" Vuestra Merced was shortened to Usted and so doesn't indicate on the surface that it was originally feminine. In Italian, however, a similar evolution occurred but "Lei" was simply taken a means of representing a range of titles, all feminine: signoria, maestà, altezza. As these forms spread, the vos forms began to disappear and in some cases, like in Spanish, took on bad connotations.

In Arabic, there is no connection when it comes to the identity of the second-person masculine and third-person feminine present conjugations, but I believe that the use of the plural as a sign of respect (although not particularly used today, I don't think) is an import from the European languages (e.g. as-salam alaikum)

Edited by cmj on 12 December 2010 at 11:18am



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