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Can someone help me with this German line

  Tags: Song Texts | Grammar | German
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IronFist
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 Message 1 of 7
11 February 2010 at 1:46am | IP Logged 
In the Rammstein song "Sonne," there is a line that says:

"Die Sonne scheint mir aus den Händen"

I know what all those words mean, but there is something about the grammar/word order that I don't understand.

I see it translated as:

"The sun is shining out of my hands"

How is that "my hands?" Wouldn't that be "meine Hände"?

I've only studied German casually, and it was years ago, but I would see that and think something like "the sun is shining on me, out of my hands" but that doesn't make sense (not that song lyrics do).

Would it be wrong to say, in German, "Die Sonne scheint aus meine Hände?"

How does "mir" become "my"?

Or is that just one of those weird German things like how you have to say "mir ist kalt" (because I heard saying "ich bin kalt" means "I am impotent" or something like that).


That line is in the song twice. It also has "die Sonne scheint mir aus den Augen" which is "the sun is shining out of my eyes." Same word order/grammar thing, I guess.

Thanks!
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Pyx
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 Message 2 of 7
11 February 2010 at 2:06am | IP Logged 
IronFist wrote:
In the Rammstein song "Sonne," there is a line that says:

"Die Sonne scheint mir aus den Händen"

I know what all those words mean, but there is something about the grammar/word order that I don't understand.

I see it translated as:

"The sun is shining out of my hands"

That's correct


IronFist wrote:
How is that "my hands?" Wouldn't that be "meine Hände"?

"Den Haenden" = "the hands". "meine Haende" would be "my haends". But since you're talking about from where the sun is shining, you have to say "aus den Haenden". It's something about those 'case' thingies..


IronFist wrote:
I've only studied German casually, and it was years ago, but I would see that and think something like "the sun is shining on me, out of my hands" but that doesn't make sense (not that song lyrics do).

The translation is right, but I can't help you with what they're trying to say :)


IronFist wrote:
Would it be wrong to say, in German, "Die Sonne scheint aus meine Hände?"

Yep, would be wrong


IronFist wrote:
How does "mir" become "my"?

Someone with better knowledge of German grammar will be able to give you details, but in the end it'll boil down to: Sometimes you have to have a 'mir' in there ;). You could also say "Die Sonne scheint dir aus den Haenden", in which case it would mean "The sun is shining out of your hands"


IronFist wrote:
Or is that just one of those weird German things like how you have to say "mir ist kalt" (because I heard saying "ich bin kalt" means "I am impotent" or something like that)."

Yeah, I guess. I don't know if kalt might mean impotent (I've never heard that), but the difference is: If you say "Ich bin kalt", you state the fact, that you are literally cold. As in: "He's already been dead a couple of hours, he's cold". But if you say "Mir ist kalt", it means you're *feeling* cold.


:)
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OlafP
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 Message 3 of 7
11 February 2010 at 2:17am | IP Logged 
"Meine Hände" is the nominative case. The preposition "aus" requires the dative case.
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Ocius
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 Message 4 of 7
11 February 2010 at 3:51am | IP Logged 
The weirdness, from an English speaker's perspective, is the lack of a possessive pronoun.
In English when we speak of doing something to/with body parts, we almost always
qualify it with a possessive pronoun. In German, that isn't so typical. Honestly, this really
is one of those things where you simply have to get used to a different way of expressing
things (though what OlafP said about cases is important, too). German uses a reflexive
pronoun where English would use a possessive.

For example, where in English you'd say "I'm combing my hair" or "I'm brushing my
teeth." -- the German equivalents of these would be, if I'm not mistaken, "Ich kämme mir
die Haare" and "Ich putze mir die Zähne." The German sentences would "literally" mean
"I'm combing to me the hair" and "I'm brushing to me the teeth." The two languages
simply express these sentences in different ways.

Edited by Ocius on 11 February 2010 at 3:59am

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datsunking1
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 Message 5 of 7
11 February 2010 at 4:01am | IP Logged 
Mir is a reflexive, it's similar in Spanish.

Germans assume that the reflexive pronoun takes the object.

Like saying "I wash my hands" They assume you're not washing somebody elses hands, so they figure that they are yours.

Mir- To me, my.

Ocius and Pyx are completely correct.


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Teango
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 Message 6 of 7
11 February 2010 at 4:40am | IP Logged 
Here's the grammar bit for anyone interested...

When a verb acts on an object, we generally only indicate possession in English "internally" and within the same phrase, e.g. "I burned my hair". If we use "I burned the hair" instead, then it's generally understood that we're referring to something that's no longer an obvious part of us and most likely not connected to someone else either. However, there's no clear indication that this mysterious hair even belongs to us at all or ever did, and so the phrase remains ambiguous without some context.

In German they don't let you get away with this, you need to be more specific. You get to choose from 2 different types of possessives - "internal" or "external" (sometimes also called "implicit"). I won't pretend to understand it all, but from what I can gather, you generally use explicit (e.g. "die" instead of "meine") for cases when it's a part of you (often accompanied with a dative like "mir"), and implicit when it's not. Taking the same bizarre hair example again as above, there's a subtle difference in meaning in German. In a sentence like...

"Ich habe mir die Haare verbrannt" [I burned my hair]

the subject is talking personally about the hair on his head, maybe an accident with a faulty hair-dryer or a drunken moment with his cigarette lighter in the club, whereas in the sentence...

"Ich habe meine Haare verbrannt"

this conveys a sense of the hair being separate from the guy somehow, that it may even be a long-lost wig or a lock of his hair kept in his ex-girlfriend's locket, but that it still belongs to him.

The closest we get to "external" possessives in English is in pronoun + prepositional constructions like...

"She grabbed him by the arm" vs "She grabbed his arm"
"He kissed her on the cheek" vs "He kissed her cheek"

where there's a very subtle sense that the arm or cheek is focussed on almost to the exclusion of the rest of the body, but not quite to the same extent as in German.

Here's a heavy-going but comprehensive summary of it all in case you're a glutton for further punishment:

http://www.db-thueringen.de/servlets/DerivateServlet/Derivat e-17307/König&Gast_ch7_poss.pdf

"With external possessors, i.e. with constructions in which the possessor
is encoded as a separate argument, the situation is construed as totally affecting
the person in question. This implication is lacking in the construction with internal
possessors, where body parts and extensions of the body are treated as separate parts
which do not concern the possessor."

and a much smaller and less scary related link, but in German (perhaps you can check it out with Google Translate):

http://de.wiktionary.org/wiki/Pertinenzdativ

Hope this all helps a bit, and I guess coming back to the original Rammstein lyrics, it's probably a good thing that the sun is actually coming out of hands still connected to a living body... ;)

Edited by Teango on 11 February 2010 at 5:00am

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IronFist
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 Message 7 of 7
11 February 2010 at 7:12am | IP Logged 
Thanks everyone.

I figured it was probably some German-specific thing that doesn't translate literally. I just remember hearing that line and thinking "I know all those words... but I don't know what he's saying" so I had to look it up, and then I got even more confused. lol.

I'm terrible with German cases. It's why I can understand much better than I can speak or write, but I haven't even studied German in the last 7 years anyway so I'm way out of practice.

:)

Edited by IronFist on 11 February 2010 at 7:14am



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