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Irish as a semitic language ?

  Tags: Gaelic (Irish) | Book
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DaraghM
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 Message 1 of 12
04 March 2008 at 5:10am | IP Logged 
In his book, Empires of the Word, Nicholas Ostler, states that Irish (Gaelic) shares 14 similar traits with the semitic languages. However, he does not detail what they are. The only similarity that I'm aware of is the hard H in Arabic, crops up in Irish, in such words as "chonaic". Does anyone know what the others might be ?

Edited by DaraghM on 04 March 2008 at 6:32am

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Damian62
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 Message 2 of 12
15 May 2010 at 4:46pm | IP Logged 
The "a" with the sine fada pronounced by Connemara people such as La (day). This sounds identical to the Arabic "a" sound.Listen to Sean Nos singers from Connemara and listen to songs in Arabic...( I do not speak arabic).
Many years ago I had a friend from Jordan and he thought that Irish sounded something between Hebrew and Arabic.
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Declan1991
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 Message 3 of 12
15 May 2010 at 9:46pm | IP Logged 
Well the initial sound of chonaic occurs in German too, that's hardly an astounding coincidence. Given that the grammars of the two languages in question are totally and utterly different, I don't really know how it's a valid comparison whatsoever.
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MäcØSŸ
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 Message 4 of 12
15 May 2010 at 10:40pm | IP Logged 
Phonological similarities are accidental, the same sound are found in may other languages and Irish has nothing to
do with semitic languages.
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fíorghael
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 Message 5 of 12
21 May 2010 at 7:52pm | IP Logged 
I think it's undisputed that Irish is a Celtic, Indo European language, however it is plausible that Irish may have picked up some grammatic features from Semitic or other Afro Asiatic languages, possible through early Atlantic trade routes. Irish (along with other Insular Celtic languages) has some strange features that don't occur in older Celtic languages like Gaulish or other Indo European languages e.g.

VSO word order
D'ól an fear an t-uisce.
The man drank the water (Drank the man the water)
compare to Arabic
شرب الرجل الماء
The man drank the water (Drank the man the water)

Indicating posession using prepositions
Tá leabhar agam
I have a book (is book at-me)
compare to Arabic
عندي كتاب
I have a book (at-me book)

As well as consonanant mutations, strange forms of the verb 'to be' etc.
However it is possible that a pre Celtic substrate unrelated to the Semitic languages explains all of this.

Edited by fíorghael on 21 May 2010 at 7:54pm

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goosefrabbas
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 Message 6 of 12
21 May 2010 at 8:25pm | IP Logged 
fíorghael wrote:
Irish (along with other Insular Celtic languages) has some strange features that don't occur in older Celtic languages like Gaulish or other Indo European languages e.g.

...

Indicating posession using prepositions
Tá leabhar agam
I have a book (is book at-me)
compare to Arabic
عندي كتاب
I have a book (at-me book)


(edited)
Russian use the same construction:
у меня книга
I have a/the book. (at/by me book)

Edited by goosefrabbas on 22 May 2010 at 4:36am

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Fat-tony
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 Message 7 of 12
21 May 2010 at 9:13pm | IP Logged 
goosefrabbas wrote:
fíorghael wrote:
Irish (along with other Insular Celtic
languages) has some strange features that don't occur in older Celtic languages like
Gaulish or other Indo European languages e.g.

...

Indicating posession using prepositions
Tá leabhar agam
I have a book (is book at-me)
compare to Arabic
عندي كتاب
I have a book (at-me book)


Slavic languages use the same construction.
For example, in Russian:
у меня книга
I have a/the book. (at/by me book)


It's generally thought that this constriction entered Russian via the Finno-Ugric or
Turkic languages. All the other Slavonic languages use a form of the verb "imeti" to
donate possession. This verb even exists in Russian but it is only used for abstract
possession such as: иметь возможность - to have the opportunity.
Irish (and the rest of the Celtic languages) are in no way related to the Semitic
languages because they lack any trace of the defining feature of the Semitic family,
triliteral root system.
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NativeLanguage
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 Message 8 of 12
22 May 2010 at 12:49am | IP Logged 
Here are a couple of relevant parallels I'm familiar with:

- VSO is the basic word order of Irish and Classical Arabic.

- Lack of indefinite article, presence of definite article in both Semitic and Celtic.

- Conjugated prepositions. Arabic `alaa 'upon': `aleyya (upon-me), `aleyhi (upon-him), `aleykum (upon-you), etc. Irish le 'with': liom (with-me), leat (with-you), leis (with-him), leo (with-them), etc.

- Syntax of the genitive construct: noun(s) - genitive article - genitive noun. Additionally, both families only allow 1 definite article in a genitive noun phrase, which specifies the genitive noun. Compare Hebrew beit ha-sefer (house the-book) 'schoolhouse' and Irish Tír na nÓg (land the-Youth) 'Land of Youth'

Looking at this from the perspective of historical linguistics, these similarities likely developed by chance. Another possibility is that they reflect common areal phenomena, which requires uncovering how and when the two families had the kind of contact that could produce this result. Most Celtic and Semitic linguists are skeptical of the few hypotheses elaborated so far.

Some issues with linking Celtic & Semitic: the Celtic features above are unique to Insular Celtic (particularly Irish); these supposedly Semitic features don't show up in other languages more likely to be influenced (in, say, Italic by, perhaps, Phoenician); there is strong, ancient textual evidence supporting the idea that these features developed naturally in Insular Celtic; there is even stronger evidence that Proto-Semitic demonstrated most (all?) of these features prior to the existence of Celtic as a distinct Indo-European branch.

A more plausible link is suggested by what possibly amount to Semitic loan words in our remote ancestral tongue, Proto-Indo-European (like PIE *woynos 'wine' from Semitic *waynu). See http://paleoglot.blogspot.com/2008/08/list-of-possible-proto -semitic-loanword.html for a sample list. It's a curious thought, since Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Semitic were likely spoken around the same time.



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