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tenido and tuve (Spanish)

  Tags: Spanish
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tuffy
Triglot
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 Message 1 of 16
06 December 2005 at 3:45am | IP Logged 
Thus far I have used the word "tenido" in Pimsleur.
For sentences like "he tenido que..." and "he tenido demasiado trabajo".

Now I have heard "tuve" and it seems to mean the same.
They say for instance "I had more time". "Tuve mas tiempo". What is the difference then between "tuve mas tiempo" and "he tenido mas tiempo"?

Does "tube" mean: I had
And "he tenido": I HAVE had?

So "I had more time (tuve)" vs "I have had more time (he tenido)"? Tuve is more direct then? (tenido also always seems to need the word he, ha, hemos. Tuve doesn't need an extra word it seems).

Thanks :)

Edited by tuffy on 06 December 2005 at 3:52am

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patuco
Diglot
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 Message 2 of 16
06 December 2005 at 6:05am | IP Logged 
Yes to all your questions above.
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tuffy
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 Message 3 of 16
06 December 2005 at 7:43am | IP Logged 
Ah ok.
So in real life one would use tube more than he tenido I gues? Seems more to the point. Is there a difference anyway between "I had" and "I have had"?

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Niall Gallagher
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Ireland
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 Message 4 of 16
06 December 2005 at 8:49am | IP Logged 
To piggy-back on tuffy's thread for a moment, I am assuming of course that one can use personal pronouns (yo, tú, etc.) with tuve, e.g.

Yo tuve = I had

But with the past participle tenido, does this also hold true, or should the auxilary verb haber be used instead? e.g.

Yo tenido = I had
He tenido = I have/I've had

Google's translator renders "yo tenido" as "had I". In this case, presuming it's incorrect, is "yo tuve" the only way of say "I had", or can it somehow be constructed using tenido?
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Andy E
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 Message 5 of 16
06 December 2005 at 10:24am | IP Logged 
You must supply the auxiliary verb 'haber' as well.

Yo he tenido
he tenido

These on-line translators are invariably rubbish with anything other than the simplest constructions.

Andy.


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patuco
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 Message 6 of 16
06 December 2005 at 11:16am | IP Logged 
tuffy wrote:
So in real life one would use tube more than he tenido I gues? Seems more to the point.

Not necessarily, it depends on the situation.

P.S. It's "tuve"
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tuffy
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 Message 7 of 16
06 December 2005 at 1:28pm | IP Logged 
Haha, I sometimes make that mistake because I get used to the b sound. And also because it's a way to remember this new word for me (a tube, containing something I have) :-)

Can you give me an example Patuco where it becomes clear for me what the difference is between "had" and "have had"? When you can clearly only use one of them? Thanks.


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ElComadreja
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Philippines
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 Message 8 of 16
06 December 2005 at 5:46pm | IP Logged 
Niall Gallagher wrote:
To piggy-back on tuffy's thread for a moment, I am assuming of course that one can use personal pronouns (yo, tú, etc.) with tuve, e.g.

Yo tuve = I had

But with the past participle tenido, does this also hold true, or should the auxilary verb haber be used instead? e.g.

Yo tenido = I had
He tenido = I have/I've had

Google's translator renders "yo tenido" as "had I". In this case, presuming it's incorrect, is "yo tuve" the only way of say "I had", or can it somehow be constructed using tenido?


it's
(yo) he tenido
(tu) has tenido
(el) ha tendio
(nosotros) hemos tenido
etc...
"tuve" is a past tense form for "yo", and changes for the same reason present tense does. For example: (tu) tuviste.

Edited by ElComadreja on 06 December 2005 at 5:51pm



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