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 Language Learning Forum : Questions About Your Target Languages |  | |
| frenkeld Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 6945 days ago 2042 posts - 2719 votes  Speaks: Russian*, English Studies: German | Message 9 of 15 29 November 2005 at 3:33pm | IP Logged | ||
It appears that what you call "very soft b" and "real hard v" are exactly the same sound in Spanish - that is the whole idea, that they have completely lost the distinction between "b" and "v", if all the other letters in the word are the same. So, all you now need is to figure out how to pronounce just that one sound. :) This, however, can only be done by listening to a recording and emulating it, or, if available, by having a native speaker listen to you and correct you until (s)he is satisfied with your pronunciation. If you are still concerned that with some Spanish speakers (from the same geographic area) "v" in "por favor" sounds to you a bit more b-like, whereas with others it appears slightly more "v-like", it is important to realize that to Spanish ear these will still appear to be the same sound, even if your non-native ear can make the distinction. Edited by frenkeld on 29 November 2005 at 4:05pm 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| patuco Diglot Moderator Gibraltar Joined 7017 days ago 3795 posts - 4268 votes Speaks: Spanish, English* Personal Language Map | Message 10 of 15 29 November 2005 at 4:18pm | IP Logged | ||
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I've just seen this thread and, to be perfectly honest, I don't know what the the problem is. Granted, I am a native speaker but I only know one sound for "v". It's not hard, soft or anything in between, it's just "v".
David was completely correct when he said (quote) "that to a Spanish ear these will still appear to be the same sound, even if your non-native ear can make the distinction." 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| tuffy Triglot Senior Member Netherlands Joined 7036 days ago 1394 posts - 1412 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, German Studies: Spanish | Message 11 of 15 29 November 2005 at 4:29pm | IP Logged | ||
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But Frenkeld, in your previous post you said there is a difference sometimes:
"that the sound is b-like in the beginning of the word (which explains your example of "viernes"), or after the "m" sound. Otherwise, the pronunciation is more v-like, including between two vowels, as in "favor"." So there is a difference I understand. And that is also what I hear myself. My only problem is that I don't know why "faVor" sounds different than other V sounds. Patuco you say you only know 1 V sound. But in Por favor to me it sounds much softer than in: cerveza, viene, viernes. There I hear a clear b. But in favor I do not hear any, or hardly, a B sound, just an F sound (fafor). So that's why I wonder why that is, why it sounds different than other V words. This is a difficult topic by the way to do in writing :) Edited by tuffy on 29 November 2005 at 4:32pm 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| Niall Gallagher Groupie Ireland Joined 7137 days ago 81 posts - 81 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish | Message 12 of 15 29 November 2005 at 5:08pm | IP Logged | ||
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In the link Andy E provided, the article recommends to try pronuncing this with the eraser-end of a pencil or your little finger in between your lips, to prevent them from touching completely.
My question is, while my lips don't touch each other during pronunciation, my top front teeth do touch my bottom lip (in a downwards, almost scratching motion), e.g. cerVeza. Is this normal, or even correct? Edited by Niall Gallagher on 29 November 2005 at 5:09pm 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| patuco Diglot Moderator Gibraltar Joined 7017 days ago 3795 posts - 4268 votes Speaks: Spanish, English* Personal Language Map | Message 13 of 15 30 November 2005 at 6:14am | IP Logged | ||
Mine too and I consider myself normal :) 1 person has voted this message useful | |||
| Niall Gallagher Groupie Ireland Joined 7137 days ago 81 posts - 81 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish | Message 14 of 15 30 November 2005 at 8:49am | IP Logged | ||
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Haha, thanks for the clarification!
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| Guanche Hexaglot Senior Member Spain danielmarin.blogspot Joined 7048 days ago 168 posts - 178 votes Speaks: Spanish*, EnglishC2, GermanC1, RussianB1, French, Japanese Studies: Greek, Mandarin, Arabic (Written) | Message 15 of 15 01 December 2005 at 11:31am | IP Logged | ||
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Yep, there's no distinction between "v" and "b" in Spanish.
However, there WAS a difference some centuries ago, so many old textbooks on Spanish used to include this difference. I remember when I read my mother's language textbook and I found a chapter devoted to the "correct" pronunciation of letter "v". I've also heard some singers (especially from South America) making different sounds for "b" and "v"... 1 person has voted this message useful |
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