ElComadreja Senior Member Philippines bibletranslatio Joined 7244 days ago 683 posts - 757 votes 2 sounds Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish, Portuguese, Latin, Ancient Greek, Biblical Hebrew, Cebuano, French, Tagalog
| Message 17 of 28 25 September 2005 at 4:08pm | IP Logged |
tuffy wrote:
czech, two more questions about this:
Question 1:
You wrote that "te" is "yourself".
How does "te quiero and "te amo" work then?
That means "I love YOU".
Isn't te the informal version of se?
Question 2 (or 1b :)
But if that is true, why can't you then also say "SE amo"? Because a translation program does translate "te amo" as "I love you" but "se amo" is translated only as "I love".
So in short "se" and "te" are a bit confusing.
Tuffy
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Because "te amo" means I love you... not I love yourself. It's two different pieces of grammar that you're getting mixed up.
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Miri-chan Tetraglot Groupie United States crimsonietta.ne Joined 7014 days ago 59 posts - 60 votes 2 sounds Speaks: Cantonese, English*, French, Mandarin Studies: Japanese, Spanish, Portuguese, German, Thai
| Message 18 of 28 25 September 2005 at 8:52pm | IP Logged |
Okay, here we go. Me, te, se, are all reflexives that work like direct objects, not the "self" form.
You do know what a direct object is, right?
I see the book <-- book is the direct object
I love you <-- you is the direct object
thus, "te amo" = "love you"
Therefore, it is incorrect to say that reflexives are equal to myself, yourself, himself. They are reflexives that equal the standard you, me, him, her, etc. Only when you combine a subject and a reflexive together of the same person do you get the "self" meaning.
Thus, me amo means "I love myself" (literally "I love me")
te amo means "I love you"
se amo means "I love him/her/it"
Hope that helped.
Edited by Miri-chan on 25 September 2005 at 8:54pm
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Miri-chan Tetraglot Groupie United States crimsonietta.ne Joined 7014 days ago 59 posts - 60 votes 2 sounds Speaks: Cantonese, English*, French, Mandarin Studies: Japanese, Spanish, Portuguese, German, Thai
| Message 19 of 28 25 September 2005 at 8:53pm | IP Logged |
EDIT: Double post... again!
Edited by Miri-chan on 25 September 2005 at 8:53pm
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morprussell Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 7169 days ago 272 posts - 285 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: French
| Message 20 of 28 26 September 2005 at 12:29am | IP Logged |
Miri-chan wrote:
You do know what a direct object is, right?
I see the book <-- book is the direct object
I love you <-- you is the direct object
thus, "te amo" = "love you"...
Thus, me amo means "I love myself" (literally "I love me")
te amo means "I love you"
se amo means "I love him/her/it"
Hope that helped. |
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I believe it would be,
"La amo" = "I love her"
or
"Lo amo" = "I love him"
"Se amo" doesn't work for that situation, "se" isn't an option for direct object pronouns. Below are the options for DO, IDO, and reflexive pronouns.
Here are the Spanish direct object pronouns,
me (me)
te (you-familiar)
lo, la (him, her, it, you-formal)
nos (us)
os (you-all-familiar)
los, las (them, you-all-formal)
Here are the inderect object pronouns,
me (me)
te (you-familiar)
le (him, her, you-formal)
nos (us)
os (you-all-familiar)
les (them, you-all-formal)
Here are the reflexive pronouns,
me (myself)
te (yourself)
se (himself, herself, yourself)
nos (ourselves)
os (yourselves)
se (themselves, yourselves)
Edited by morprussell on 26 September 2005 at 12:31am
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Andy E Triglot Senior Member United Kingdom Joined 7109 days ago 1651 posts - 1939 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish, French
| Message 21 of 28 26 September 2005 at 2:55am | IP Logged |
Not wanting to confuse the situation too much - :¬) - since morprussell has rather kindly summarised Spanish non-subject pronouns but the Real Academia Española also allows for the use of leísmo under certain circumstances.
le may be substituted for lo when it refers to a male person but not a masculine noun. This is very widespread in Spain and is considered mas castizo by many.
Obviously there are other forms of leísmo and indeed regional usage of loísmo and laísmo that affect the 3rd person indirect object pronouns but le for lo is at least "allowed".
I only mention it because you will hear it and need to understand it.
Andy.
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tuffy Triglot Senior Member Netherlands Joined 7040 days ago 1394 posts - 1412 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, German Studies: Spanish
| Message 22 of 28 26 September 2005 at 5:07am | IP Logged |
Thanks everybody!
That has cleared up a little.
I will print this out so I can re-read it a couple of times and then I hope to understand it completely, incl. the difficult sections :)
How have you learned grammar by the way?
I'm thinking about finding myself a teacher for the grammar questions soon.
But I also must be carefull not to focus too much on grammar. I gues the brain will sort out what's ok and not if it hears enough Spanish.
Tuffy
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morprussell Diglot Senior Member United States Joined 7169 days ago 272 posts - 285 votes Speaks: English*, Spanish Studies: French
| Message 23 of 28 26 September 2005 at 1:29pm | IP Logged |
I recommend this website for learning grammar, http://www.studySpanish.com/tutorial.htm. It covers more than you need to worry about right now, but I think each topic is clearly explained. You could start out by reading about reflexive verbs.
As for learning grammar, true your brain will sort it out, but you can speed that up with a good tutorial.
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tuffy Triglot Senior Member Netherlands Joined 7040 days ago 1394 posts - 1412 votes Speaks: Dutch*, English, German Studies: Spanish
| Message 24 of 28 26 September 2005 at 1:49pm | IP Logged |
That website on reflective verbs makes it a little clearer, thanks.
Tuffy
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