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Spanish - ¿Ojalá o ojalá que?

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TheBiscuit
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Mexico
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 Message 1 of 13
17 April 2009 at 9:17pm | IP Logged 
I've been wondering whether it's correct Spanish to say "ojalá que". I don't hear it in Mexico but I do see forum members using it which makes me wonder if it's used like that in other Spanish speaking countries. A Spanish teacher here once told me it was wrong and in fact redundant to add "que" to ojalá. Any thoughts?
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TheBiscuit
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 Message 3 of 13
17 April 2009 at 11:40pm | IP Logged 
Vai wrote:
like you i've consistently seen it both ways.

do they also neglect to change the connector to u before another o in mexico =P


No, that's just me, thanks for the correction. Shows you how much I write in Spanish here!
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manuelram16
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 Message 4 of 13
18 April 2009 at 4:40am | IP Logged 
Both are commonly used in Spanish,
"Ojala no llueva hoy"
"Ojala que te mueras"
Of course if you apply the rules of "La Real Academia Española" things change.
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Cainntear
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 Message 5 of 13
18 April 2009 at 3:05pm | IP Logged 
TheBiscuit wrote:
A Spanish teacher here once told me it was wrong and in fact redundant to add "que" to ojalá. Any thoughts?

There ain't nothing wrong with no redundancies. Spanish is riddled with them -- every language is. I mean, "I did it yesterday" is redundant -- there's two things in it that place it in the past when you only need one.

Some people, particularly teachers, have a tendency to be "overcorrect" at times (and I used to be one of them!)
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thephilologist
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 Message 6 of 13
19 April 2009 at 12:48am | IP Logged 
Both are used, though where I've spent time (mostly South American) people almost always include the "que".
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jimbo baby!
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 Message 7 of 13
19 April 2009 at 6:35am | IP Logged 
The first thing I thought of when seeing this thread was the song "Ojalá Que Llueva Café" by Juan Luis Guerra, which is a really nice song.

It appears at least that the expression is used informally by Spanish speakers and it is acceptable. But I don't know what a Spanish grammarian would say about that.
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stelingo
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 Message 8 of 13
19 April 2009 at 10:41am | IP Logged 
Cainntear wrote:
TheBiscuit wrote:
A Spanish teacher here once told me it was wrong and in fact redundant to add "que" to ojalá. Any thoughts?

There ain't nothing wrong with no redundancies. Spanish is riddled with them -- every language is. I mean, "I did it yesterday" is redundant -- there's two things in it that place it in the past when you only need one.

Some people, particularly teachers, have a tendency to be "overcorrect" at times (and I used to be one of them!)


Which word in the sentence 'I did it yesterday' is redundant exactly? If you say 'I did it' then we don't know when you did it (yesterday, last week, last month etc) If we take out the word 'did' then the sentence doesn't make any sense and is wrong grammatically.


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