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Spanish - ¿Ojalá o ojalá que? | ||
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 Language Learning Forum : Specific Languages |  | |
| Lisandro Triglot Newbie Argentina Joined 5887 days ago 4 posts - 7 votes Speaks: Spanish*, English, Italian Studies: Russian, Mandarin, Catalan | Message 9 of 13 19 April 2009 at 11:29am | IP Logged | ||||||||
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Please allow me a comment. Ojalá means quiera Alá, hence que, quiera Alá que.
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| gogglehead Triglot Senior Member Argentina Joined 6075 days ago 248 posts - 320 votes  Speaks: English*, Spanish, Portuguese Studies: Russian, Italian | Message 10 of 13 19 April 2009 at 2:36pm | IP Logged | ||||||||
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I have heard both of them here too, but I have absolutely no idea which is correct! Edited by gogglehead on 19 April 2009 at 2:37pm 1 person has voted this message useful | |||||||||
| brozman Bilingual Tetraglot Groupie Spain Joined 6056 days ago 87 posts - 106 votes Speaks: Spanish*, Catalan*, English, Japanese Studies: Russian, Indonesian | Message 11 of 13 19 April 2009 at 3:28pm | IP Logged | ||||||||
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The DPD doesn't say "ojalá que" is incorrect, but it only gives an example, without "que". However, if you look it up in RAE's Corpus, you will find "ojalá que" 248 times, so I guess it's not incorrect at all. My Spanish-English dictionary only uses it without "que".
Anyway, from a linguistic point of view it's grammatically correct, at least here we use both forms, so if you are speaking you can say the form you feel more confortable with. I guess prescriptive grammar prefers it without que, so if you are writing in Spanish you'd rather use it this way. By the way, Ojalá que llueva café is a great song! 1 person has voted this message useful | |||||||||
| agimcomas Pentaglot Groupie Canada Joined 6459 days ago 69 posts - 77 votes Speaks: Spanish*, French, English, Portuguese, German Studies: Mandarin, Korean | Message 12 of 13 21 April 2009 at 4:15pm | IP Logged | ||||||||
The conjugation of the verb 'to do' into its past form, 'did', is redundant in this particular sentence. If you said, 'I do it yesterday', the word 'yesterday' by its meaning necessarily indicates that the action is in the past, and more specifically, yesterday. Of course, the sentence is not grammatically correct in English, but in some languages it would be (like Chinese). Edited by agimcomas on 21 April 2009 at 4:16pm 1 person has voted this message useful | |||||||||
| Ras Diglot Newbie Mexico Joined 5676 days ago 3 posts - 3 votes Speaks: Spanish*, English Studies: Mandarin, Japanese | Message 13 of 13 01 June 2009 at 7:48am | IP Logged | ||||||||
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Well, I'm a native Spanish speaker, and this is what I think: If you are not sure, just use "ojalá". There's really no difference, but if you use "ojalá que" it might sound redundant to some people, but if you use only "ojalá", you can be 99.9% sure you are saying it (or writing it) right.
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