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Different Uses of Subj. Mood in Language

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brandon
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 Message 1 of 12
03 March 2010 at 2:47am | IP Logged 
Hi all,

I decided to review Spanish and French grammar, but didn't want to get confused with studying the Subjunctive tense/mood simultaneously. I wanted to see if there were any different uses between the languages. So far, I have these examples of different uses:

espérer vs. esperar
espérer does not use the subjunctive while esperar does.

Are there any other examples of differences you know of? Thank you!
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Spiderkat
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 Message 2 of 12
03 March 2010 at 5:10pm | IP Logged 
brandon wrote:
Hi all,

...

espérer vs. esperar
espérer does not use the subjunctive while esperar does.

Are there any other examples of differences you know of? Thank you!

Just one question. What do you mean by espérer does not use the subjunctive?
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Cabaire
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 Message 3 of 12
04 March 2010 at 2:19pm | IP Logged 
What do you mean by espérer does not use the subjunctive?

J'espère que c'est bon maintenant. (not *soit)

Espero que vengas (not *vienes)

A main difference are for example if-clauses. Modern French uses indicative, Spanish subjunctive.

Si j'étais resté en France, je n'aurais pas eu toutes ces difficultés.

Si tú fueras yo, también estarías triste.
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Ajijic10
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 Message 4 of 12
04 March 2010 at 5:22pm | IP Logged 
Cabaire wrote:
What do you mean by espérer does not use the subjunctive?

A main difference are for example if-clauses. Modern French uses indicative, Spanish subjunctive.


Not always.

Si Juan viene, traerá los libros.
Si tengo tiempo mañana, iré a la playa.



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TheBiscuit
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 Message 5 of 12
09 March 2010 at 6:02am | IP Logged 
Si tuviera tiempo lo haría.
Si j'avais le temps je le ferais.

Si hubiera tenido tiempo lo hubiera hecho.
Si j'avais eu le temps je l'aurais fait.

I can't think of any others off the top of my head. I don't think there are that many instances where they differ that much.
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brandon
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 Message 6 of 12
10 March 2010 at 5:07am | IP Logged 
I may be wrong on this, but I think I read somewhere that in Spanish, the subjunctive can be used with si-clauses when referring to a future event...

Using an example from above:
Si yo tenga tiempo mañana, iré a la playa.

Is this right at all? Or maybe it was 'aunque' that uses subjunctive when referring to a future event?

Iré a la playa aunque no tenga tiempo. (?)

Just recall reading somewhere that when referring to future events, Spanish sometimes uses the subjunctive. I can't find this anywhere, so perhaps I misread it or it was simply wrong. Thoughts?
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tractor
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 Message 7 of 12
10 March 2010 at 9:13am | IP Logged 
The present subjunctive can never be used after si. You have to say: Si (yo) tengo tiempo ...
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brandon
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 Message 8 of 12
15 March 2010 at 4:58am | IP Logged 
Good to know.

It's 'aunque' that takes subjunctive.


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