Jon1991 Groupie United Kingdom Joined 5146 days ago 98 posts - 126 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish, French, Russian
| Message 1 of 8 14 September 2010 at 11:58am | IP Logged |
Hi, I'm currently working through the Elizabeth Smith Teach Yourself Spanish.
I came across this sentance in a dialogue (please excuse the lack of accents) -
"Me gustaria ver "Sin palabras" La has visto?"
"No, pero me gustaria verla"
My question is - why isn't "verla" "ver" as "ver" means to see. Is it a different tense or a new word.
Any advice will be appreciated.
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Doitsujin Diglot Senior Member Germany Joined 5101 days ago 1256 posts - 2363 votes Speaks: German*, English
| Message 2 of 8 14 September 2010 at 12:57pm | IP Logged |
Jon1991 wrote:
My question is - why isn't "verla" "ver" as "ver" means to see. Is it a different tense or a new word. |
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La is the object pronoun. It probably stands for la película (=the movie).
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jplain Newbie United States Joined 5078 days ago 23 posts - 34 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish
| Message 3 of 8 14 September 2010 at 1:22pm | IP Logged |
Yes, as stated above, la is the object pronoun, which can be translated "it."
"Me gustaria ver "Sin palabras" La has visto?"
I would like to see "Sin palabras." Have you seen it?
"No, pero me gustaria verla"
No, but I would like to see it.
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Jon1991 Groupie United Kingdom Joined 5146 days ago 98 posts - 126 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish, French, Russian
| Message 4 of 8 14 September 2010 at 1:47pm | IP Logged |
Argh brilliant lads, cheers for the help!
So in comparison to French, for example, instead of saying "J'adore mon appartement" you can shorten it to "Je l'adore". Well that's what I've been tought in my French book.
Edited by Jon1991 on 14 September 2010 at 2:22pm
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Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 5792 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 5 of 8 14 September 2010 at 4:44pm | IP Logged |
Yep, that's the same thing. The only difference is that in French the pronoun is always before the verb, whereas in Spanish it's normally before the verb, but not the infinitive.
So in French you have "je le fait" and "je veux le faire" but in Spanish "lo hago" and "quiero hacerlo" or "lo quiero hacer" (quiero hacerlo is more common, AFAIK). Also with the present participle "lo estoy haciendo" and "estoy haciéndolo". In this case I think it's more common to put the "lo" at the start though.
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s_allard Triglot Senior Member Canada Joined 5211 days ago 2704 posts - 5425 votes Speaks: French*, English, Spanish Studies: Polish
| Message 6 of 8 14 September 2010 at 6:46pm | IP Logged |
Cainntear, your explanation is totally right, but the French form should be: "Je le fais".
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Jon1991 Groupie United Kingdom Joined 5146 days ago 98 posts - 126 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish, French, Russian
| Message 7 of 8 14 September 2010 at 7:28pm | IP Logged |
Thanks everyone for the advice, much appreciated :)
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Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 5792 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 8 of 8 14 September 2010 at 10:08pm | IP Logged |
s_allard wrote:
Cainntear, your explanation is totally right, but the French form should be: "Je le fais". |
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Urk... and I've got an exam in 3 weeks too...
Thanks.
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