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Gender articles for nouns - why?

  Tags: Gender | Grammar
 Language Learning Forum : Philological Room Post Reply
55 messages over 7 pages: 1 2 35 6 7  Next >>
zecchino1991
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 Message 25 of 55
26 February 2011 at 1:45am | IP Logged 
Marc Frisch wrote:

I personally think that German could well do without it, but in other languages like
Latin it has the effect that it significantly frees up word order, making the language
more flexible.


How does gender free up word order? Just curious.
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kmart
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 Message 26 of 55
26 February 2011 at 7:21am | IP Logged 
spirit splice wrote:
All languages ought to be fully phonetic with only ONE way to pronounce each consonant or vowel, no matter where it lies in a word.

Sheesh, way to take all the romance out of a language. You might as well say get rid of all idioms and proverbs too.
Language can be beautiful to look at as well as to speak. For example, my daughter's name "Shelagh" to me appears beautiful with it's complex Irish spelling, but plain with the more phonetic "Sheila" (and we don't actually pronounce it the traditional way, but that's another story).
Fully phoneticized English looks ugly to me and would reduce the pleasure of reading. I always prefer classical books written with the spelling of the period, rather than modified to reflect modern spelling.
Vive la difference!
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Chung
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 Message 27 of 55
26 February 2011 at 7:44am | IP Logged 
zecchino1991 wrote:
Marc Frisch wrote:

I personally think that German could well do without it, but in other languages like
Latin it has the effect that it significantly frees up word order, making the language
more flexible.


How does gender free up word order? Just curious.


Now that you ask, I too wonder. Hungarian has no grammatical gender (and even less marking for natural gender than English) and very flexible word order.
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Cainntear
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 Message 28 of 55
26 February 2011 at 9:41am | IP Logged 
Kartof wrote:
I once read in a book about Spanish that you shouldn't think of grammatical gender as giving objects male or
female characteristics but rather as just another grammatical category to apply to the language. I wonder why the
categories are associated with gender though.

You've got that the wrong way round.

Traditionally, category was synonymous with gender.

In Modern English, the word "gender" has lost its meaning in everyday use, and has now become synonymous with only one type of categorisation -- classification by biological sex.

But the term "gender" in grammar predates that change in meaning. It's a shame we didn't stop using it, because it has caused a lot of confusion to a lot of people.

So we have "categories" in language, not "sexes". It just so happens that we often reuse these categories to denote sex, and the obvious label for these categories then becomes sex -- hence we call a French beer feminine, not because it is feminine, but because it is in the same category as women are.
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Cainntear
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 Message 29 of 55
26 February 2011 at 10:07am | IP Logged 
Gender helps by giving you more pronouns to play with. If we had a strict one-gender system, "he told me to give it to her" would be "it told me to give it to it".
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Marc Frisch
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 Message 31 of 55
26 February 2011 at 3:39pm | IP Logged 
zecchino1991 wrote:
Marc Frisch wrote:

I personally think that German could well do without it, but in other languages like
Latin it has the effect that it significantly frees up word order, making the language
more flexible.


How does gender free up word order? Just curious.


I was thinking of examples where adjectives and nouns are separated for emphasis. Take the following example:
Filius meus parvam casam non amat.

Subject: filius meus - my son
Object: parvam casam - the small house
Verb: non amat - does not love

To emphasize the small size of the house one might also say:
Parvam filius meus casam non amat.

In this case, the different endings signal that "parvam" belongs to "casam".
But actually, I just realized that you only need unique case endings to have that effect...
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