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Swedish possessives

  Tags: Swedish | Grammar
 Language Learning Forum : Skandinavisk & Nordisk Post Reply
earthman
Newbie
Canada
Joined 4391 days ago

6 posts - 6 votes
Speaks: English*
Studies: Spanish, Swedish, French

 
 Message 1 of 5
16 April 2013 at 4:42am | IP Logged 
Hi everyone...I joined this forum quite a while back, but I don't think I ever posted anything other than an introduction due to school getting pretty intense. I'm on a brief break between terms, and started learning Swedish with Rosetta Stone yesterday. I've been cruising through it, as I don't have much else to be doing...but I've recently hit a bit of a snag that I feel immersion isn't totally helping me wrap my brain around.

Can somebody explain to me how to differentiate between the reflexive possessive pronouns and other possessive pronouns? It makes perfect sense to me if you need to differentiate between two different people who are both present or something, but some of the Rosetta Stone examples seemed kinda weird to me (e.g., differentiating between "She is eating her (own) apple" and "she is eating her (another person's) apple").

Is there an easier way to explain when to use each of these?
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daegga
Tetraglot
Senior Member
Austria
lang-8.com/553301
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1076 posts - 1792 votes 
Speaks: German*, EnglishC2, Swedish, Norwegian
Studies: Danish, French, Finnish, Icelandic

 
 Message 2 of 5
16 April 2013 at 5:47pm | IP Logged 
It's actually pretty simple.
The reflexive possessive pronoun always refers to the subject of the sentence (subject=possessor) while the normal possessive pronouns (for 3rd person singular and plural) refer to objects/persons who are not the subject of the sentence (possessor <> subject).
But keep in mind that the subject of the sentence cannot be possessed by the subject of the sentence (it seems logical if you spell it out). This means you have no reflexive possessive pronoun in the translation of the sentence: "His (own) dog bit him", because the possessor is not the subject but the object in this sentence.

Edited by daegga on 16 April 2013 at 5:48pm

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earthman
Newbie
Canada
Joined 4391 days ago

6 posts - 6 votes
Speaks: English*
Studies: Spanish, Swedish, French

 
 Message 3 of 5
17 April 2013 at 3:10am | IP Logged 
Thanks, that helps. I still feel like some of the Rosetta Stone examples were unclear, but I'm sure I'll get it eventually.
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sehiralti
Triglot
Newbie
Finland
Joined 4539 days ago

15 posts - 27 votes
Speaks: Turkish*, EnglishC2, German
Studies: Swedish, Finnish

 
 Message 4 of 5
22 April 2013 at 11:11pm | IP Logged 
Although the explanation above is clear, I'll just add one more. If I remember correctly, the Rosetta Stone example
was "Han läser sin bok" vs. "Han läser hans bok". In this case, the first sentence means simply "He reads his book"
(the same person), whereas the second means "He reads his (another persons) bok". It is actually more precise
compared to English since you cannot form the second sentence with only a pronoun.
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earthman
Newbie
Canada
Joined 4391 days ago

6 posts - 6 votes
Speaks: English*
Studies: Spanish, Swedish, French

 
 Message 5 of 5
02 May 2013 at 7:47am | IP Logged 
Thanks everyone! I definitely have it now. In retrospect, I don't even know what the confusion was...


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