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Interlinear books

  Tags: Bilingual texts
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14 messages over 2 pages: 1
Elexi
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 Message 9 of 14
29 July 2013 at 3:10pm | IP Logged 
There is a historical background to these texts, which represent a particular point in Latin pedagogy. The
purpose of the Locke - Taylor - Hamiltonian interlinears was not to present 'real' Ceasar or to show the
grammatical structure of Latin by hyper literal translation. It was to provide a wide vocabulary and a
simplified grammatical order (a comprehensible input, even) for elementary (English) learners of Latin. The
idea was that one would tackle real' Ceasar and real grammar later on.   The method was used historically
prior to to the philological revolution of the 19th century - save the Taylor editions - Taylor was printer to
University College London, an anti-Anglican establishment and Taylor was printing these beginners texts in
resistance to the largely Anglican/Oxbridge drive for a grammatically driven approach to elementary Latin
learning. I think the method only appears 'odd' today because the philological tradition won the argument and
so we today feel the only approach is to start with 'real' texts and to approach the learning of Latin by a
grammar-translation approach.
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Elexi
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 Message 10 of 14
29 July 2013 at 5:49pm | IP Logged 
(I should say I am not defending this type of interlinear as a modern method of learning
Latin - but we should understand their place in history before totally knocking them)
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Iversen
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 Message 11 of 14
30 July 2013 at 9:58am | IP Logged 
I'm slightly surprised that the original purpose should be the acquisition of vocabulary, because the interlinear setup has its particular strength in the short-range syntactical and morphological analysis - though the free wordorder of precisely Latin might be a problem. But the use of bilingual texts in any setup is a very efficient method for vocabulary acquisition, and it is a shame that the pedagogical community didn't accept them wholeheartedly long ago. Maybe teachers saw the method as cheating?
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Antanas
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 Message 12 of 14
31 July 2013 at 7:04pm | IP Logged 
With my deepest respect to all things British, I still believe that the book of Finch (cf. google preview in my previous post; his interlinear translation is not that terrible) is better than that of Hamilton. And the (expanded) method of interlinear translation he uses. Even to poor little children.

Anyway, would interlinear translation of "Ich nicht verstehe dich, weil ich verstehe nur English" is easier to understand for a little anglophone than "Ich verstehe dich nicht, weil ich nur Englisch verstehe"?

Unless the languages are very closely related, you cannot do without grammatical explanation. Ilya Frank's Latin book is a good example of that. For instance, Russian does not use Subjunctive that often as Latin does. Perhaps Spanish would be more useful in this regard.
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aloysius
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 Message 14 of 14
06 August 2013 at 12:07pm | IP Logged 
It has been done in recent years for Homer.

The Chicago Homer

//aloysius


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