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Nynorsk: "doke" i staden for "dere/de"

  Tags: Norwegian | Dialect
 Language Learning Forum : Skandinavisk & Nordisk Post Reply
26 messages over 4 pages: 1 24  Next >>
Solfrid Cristin
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 Message 17 of 26
28 October 2013 at 8:02pm | IP Logged 
Ari wrote:
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
Of course what is a mistake at one point, may become part of a
standard at a later point.When I was a kid the correct sentence would be " I saw him". Now you are allowed
to say "I saw he" - and younger people do not even know when it should be " he" or "him", they only use "he".
And that is fine. Personally I continue saying "him", but I accept that others make differents choices.

Actually, at least in Swedish, "Jag såg honom" is the newer form, and "Jag såg han" is the older. Thus,
speaking from a normative historical perspective, you're the one making the "mistake". But we respect your
choice, of course. Some are just more conservative in their speech. :)

Wikipedia wrote:
Däremot var promonena "honom" och "henne" i stället ursprungligen dativformer, medan
motsvarande ackusativformer var "han" (identisk med nominativen) respektive "hana". Än i dag säger man
gärna "han" eller "hon" i stället för "honom" och "henne" i talspråk, som t ex "jag såg han" (vilket var det enda
korrekta i fornsvenskan) istället för "jag såg honom" (vilket anses vara det enda korrekta idag). Ännu mer
talspråkliga eller dialektala är kortformerna "n" och "na", som i t ex "jag såg 'n" eller "jag såg 'na", vilka direkt
härstammar från de gamla ackusativformerna.


If you had read my post you would have seen that this is not the case in Norwegian. At least not in my dialect.
In colloquial speech 'n could (and can) be used - I use it myself in more sloppy moments, but han/Hun was
only officially allowed a few decades ago.
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Ari
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 Message 18 of 26
28 October 2013 at 8:32pm | IP Logged 
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
If you had read my post you would have seen that this is not the case in Norwegian. At least not in my dialect.
In colloquial speech 'n could (and can) be used - I use it myself in more sloppy moments, but han/Hun was
only officially allowed a few decades ago.

Right, I don't doubt that. In Swedish, in fact, it's still not "officially allowed", and I doubt it will be anytime soon. My point is that in Swedish (and I suspect it's the same case in Norwegian), the "Jag såg han" form is a
surviving version of an older form, which has not been completely replaced by the newer form. I suspect that this is how it happened in Norwegian (I apologise in advance that I'm making a fool out of myself by
trying to write Nynorsk, but hopefully you get my point):
* Old Norwegian: "eg ser han"
* Recent Norwegian: "eg ser honom" (considered correct) / "eg ser han" (considered incorrect)
* Current Norwegian: Both considered correct

So when I'm talking about "jag såg han" being considered correct, I'm not talking about decades but centuries ago, before "honom" was even invented. At that time, I don't think there was any real separation
between Norwegian dialects and Swedish ones, which is why I believe it was the same in both languages. I may be wrong, but I hope I've at least clarified my statement.
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tractor
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 Message 19 of 26
28 October 2013 at 9:48pm | IP Logged 
As far as I know, Old Norse distinguished between subject and object pronouns (and between accusative and
dative). Over time, there has been a simplification of the system, with different results in different dialects.

Traditional Bokmål and Riksmål use "han" as subject pronoun and "ham" as object pronoun: Jeg ser ham.
However, "han" has been allowed as object pronoun in official Bokmål since 1938: Jeg ser han. It has been an
official form for 75 years, and people are still complaining about recent changes!

"Han" as object pronoun is widespread in Norwegian. It is common in dialects all over the country, and in Nynorsk
"han" is a lot more common than "hanom". Quite frankly I don't see the problem with "han" as an object pronoun in
Norwegian.
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Josquin
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 Message 20 of 26
28 October 2013 at 10:01pm | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:
As far as I know, Old Norse distinguished between subject and object pronouns (and between accusative and dative). Over time, there has been a simplification of the system, with different results in different dialects.

Yes, Old Norse had a full set of four different cases for personal pronouns (nominative, accusative, dative, genitive), which still exists in Icelandic and Faroese.

The forms for "he/him" were hann (N), hann (A), honum (D), hans (G), while "she/her" was hon (N), hana (A), henni (D), hennar (G).

You can see how this relates to the forms of the personal pronouns in the modern Scandinavian languages.

Edited by Josquin on 28 October 2013 at 10:07pm

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Solfrid Cristin
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 Message 21 of 26
29 October 2013 at 6:59am | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:
As far as I know, Old Norse distinguished between subject and object pronouns (and
between accusative and
dative). Over time, there has been a simplification of the system, with different results in different dialects.

Traditional Bokmål and Riksmål use "han" as subject pronoun and "ham" as object pronoun: Jeg ser
ham
.
However, "han" has been allowed as object pronoun in official Bokmål since 1938: Jeg ser han. It has
been an
official form for 75 years, and people are still complaining about recent changes!

"Han" as object pronoun is widespread in Norwegian. It is common in dialects all over the country, and in
Nynorsk
"han" is a lot more common than "hanom". Quite frankly I don't see the problem with "han" as an object
pronoun in
Norwegian.


Which is why I used it as an example for a change which I respected and found unproblematic :-)

Nevertheless the form was considered wrong by all the adults surrounding me as late as in the 60ies and
70ies, and to this day it is avoided by many.

Edited by Solfrid Cristin on 29 October 2013 at 7:02am

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Medulin
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 Message 22 of 26
29 October 2013 at 2:38pm | IP Logged 
HE and
SHE:

Bm:
han (object: han or ham)
hun (object: henne)

Ny:
han (object: han)
ho (object: ho or henne)

I guess the objects HENNE in Nynorsk and HAN in Bokmål are results of the samnorsk policy of yesteryear.
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stifa
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 Message 23 of 26
29 October 2013 at 3:51pm | IP Logged 
I think that "han" as object form is rather an "error" that became so common that it
turned into an alternative "correct" form.
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jeff_lindqvist
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 Message 24 of 26
29 October 2013 at 5:00pm | IP Logged 
Well, you have the Old Norse examples which Josquin posted. Those show that the nominative and accusative forms 'hann' are identical (same in older Swedish, as Ari pointed out). I don't know why the dative form became the only correct "object" form.

German still has the -n/-m distinction (ihn/ihm, einen/einem, den/dem). Does anyone have access to an Old English grammar? I mean, it's "the same" -m in him, honom, ham etc.


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