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How to pronounce loan words

 Language Learning Forum : General discussion Post Reply
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nicozerpa
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Argentina
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Speaks: Spanish*, Portuguese, English
Studies: Italian, German

 
 Message 17 of 39
21 June 2014 at 10:26pm | IP Logged 
Retinend wrote:
Yesterday I had a conversation in Spanish in which Shakespeare's name was mentioned. The
Spanish person used the Spanish version of the name, which transforms it almost
unrecognisably since both the "sh" and the "ks" are lost to just "s". When I mentioned
him, I completely dropped my Spanish accent and pronounced the name "properly," but is
this the right thing to do? In other words, just because you know the language that a loan
word comes from, is it fine to launch into the accent of that language for those specific
syllables? Is it pretentious?


In the particular case of English names or loan words in Spanish, I'd recommend that you use the local pronunciation. The problem is that English has many vowel sounds that don't exist in Spanish, and natives' ears are not used to them. If the person you're talking to can't speak English, he or she won't be able understand you at all.

A few years ago, when my listening comprehension in English was really bad, I met an American guy. Although we spoke in Spanish, I never understood his name nor the place he came from :P. That's what I understood when he introduced himself :)

"Hola, mi nombre es 1u312378nwyqoe y vengo de c8fn3ws 123dxnqu, Estados Unidos"

However, I think it wouldn't sound pretentious if you decided to continue using the proper pronunciation, it's your native language after all.
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Марк
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 Message 18 of 39
21 June 2014 at 10:36pm | IP Logged 
In Russian nothing is pronounced in the original way and it would be strange to hear.
In English the problem is that foreign words are usually written in the original ortography (without diacritics) or in some transliteration. Native English speakers pronounce the words in different ways because they don't know how to pronounce them. I heard a BBC journalist pronouncing the names of Ukrainian places in the Russian way.
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eyðimörk
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 Message 19 of 39
22 June 2014 at 12:06am | IP Logged 
If there's a L2 way of saying the word/name in question, I'd go with that no matter how silly it sounds or feels, especially if a native L2 speaker cannot be assumed to be fluent in the language the word/name comes from.

That is to say: want to buy a butternut squash in France? Mangle "butternut", no matter how silly you feel — it's a matter of being understood. Want to talk about something English in Scandinavia? Feel free to say the word in English. If you don't want to sound terribly pretentious, stay away from loan words that are incredibly common and/or have already morphed in the language. E.g. in a Swedish conversation, say "hamburgare" instead of switching to English to say "hamburger", and don't ask for a "Coca Cola" in English either even if the Swedish pronunciation actually sounds more pretentious.

Elenia wrote:
His surname remains somewhat 'intact' but his forename is changed, and 'da' becomes 'de'.

The latter is not really a name change. "da Vinci" is not any type of name, it simply means "from Vinci", as does "de Vinci". The French, historically speaking, did love to adapt names though, making it incredibly difficult at times to read Classical Archaeology in French. But the English are, historically speaking, no better. Horace, Mark Anthony, Plato, Herod, Homer…

Alphathon wrote:
Names (of people) may be a special case though as they aren't really loans per se. Just as names aren't "translated" (e.g. Alejandro doesn't become Alexander)

Except for… when it does? Anglicising names isn't, from what I gather, that terribly uncommon a practice amongst immigrants in North America, and I've known a Mahuddin in Europe who operated his business under the name Martin. In those cases it's obviously each person making a choice for themselves, but that isn't always the case. I've known Zaras (Arabic) and Sarahs (English) who were called Sara (Swedish) for 12 years of schooling, and my English neighbour calls all our French acquaintances by their Anglicised names. Yann and Jean are John, François is Francis, etc. Out of respect some people avoid "translating" names, but that's not always the case.
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Serpent
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 Message 20 of 39
22 June 2014 at 12:20am | IP Logged 
hjordis wrote:
(But just because someone CAN pronounce a specific sound, doesn't mean that it's natural for them to pronounce it in that specific place. Sounds are affected by the other sounds around them, after all.

True but I think this should also make the comprehension easier? It's not like I'm using a sound they've never heard.
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1e4e6
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 Message 21 of 39
22 June 2014 at 12:23am | IP Logged 
I believe that pronouncing it in the manner whence it is originated is often best. If
an example existed, it would be my own forename, Nicolás. Since I live in an Anglophone
country, almost no one pronounces it as it should in Spanish, but rather pronounce it
like the English "Nicholas" (and even spell it that way, which is extremely annoying).
But it depends on how the speaker environment reacts with regards to the issue. I have
had Dutch call (and spell) my name as "Nikolaas", French people pronounce my name
without the final "s", even Russians calling me "Nicolai" or something, but I often do
not take time to explain why my name should be pronounced with a Spanish pronunciation.
If the speaker group environment tend to prefer the original pronunciation, I believe
that that should be preferred. I pronounce Spain city names with Spanish pronunciation,
Portugual city names with Portuguese city names, I put the stress on the last syllable
of "Amsterdam", "Breda", "Rotterdam", etc., even though most Anglophones have no clue
about these rules, but it simply seems more natural, especially if a native speaker is
present.
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hjordis
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United States
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 Message 22 of 39
22 June 2014 at 2:34am | IP Logged 
eyðimörk wrote:
Alphathon wrote:
Names (of people) may be a special case though as
they aren't really loans per se. Just as names aren't "translated" (e.g.
Alejandro doesn't become Alexander)

Except for… when it does? Anglicising names isn't, from what I gather, that terribly
uncommon a practice amongst immigrants in North America, and I've known a Mahuddin in
Europe who operated his business under the name Martin. In those cases it's obviously
each person making a choice for themselves, but that isn't always the case. I've known
Zaras (Arabic) and Sarahs (English) who were called Sara (Swedish) for 12 years of
schooling, and my English neighbour calls all our French acquaintances by their
Anglicised names. Yann and Jean are John, François is Francis, etc. Out of respect some
people avoid "translating" names, but that's not always the case.
That's
another good point: I had a teacher called Snow White, because that's (apparently) what
her name translated to when her family immigrated. Names are probably one of those
'whatever the person in question prefers' things, at least if you know what they
prefer.

@Serpent- yeah, I just meant if you were expecting them to pronounce it your way, which
I don't think you are. For yourself the main issue is just going to be
comprehensibility. There's always the risk of sounding pretentious, but it's not really
something I'd worry about too much, personally. And as far as comprehensibility,
English is a pretty forgiving language, what with so many different native dialects
plus a bunch of non-native speakers, and these days with the internet and even tv most
people will be familiar with at least a few varieties other than their own.
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Elenia
Diglot
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United Kingdom
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 Message 23 of 39
22 June 2014 at 11:33am | IP Logged 
Alphathon wrote:
Elenia wrote:
French people have a tendency to change names to make
them sound more French. For example, Leonardo da Vinci is known in France as Léonard de
Vinci (with the 'c' being pronounced as an 's'). His surname remains somewhat 'intact'
but his forename is changed, and 'da' becomes 'de'. I'm not sure if this kind of change
is what Alphathon was talking about, but it's what comes immediately to my mind.
By the way, in French, do they tend to change people's names as a matter of
course (similar to my Alejandro → Alexander example) or is it just specific historical
figures like da Vinci?


Yes, usually if there is a French equivalent, the name will be changed (So, Peter
becomes Pierre, John becomes Jean, and so on).

I have had friends living with host families who have been asked by the host family if
they can call them something different. This mostly applies to Asians I have known.
However, I don't know how prevalent this is - everyone I've come across personally has
made an effort to pronounce names as they are given, even in cases where the name is
quite different.

Alphathon wrote:
hjordis wrote:
I'd say the same about the names of fictional
characters too, though. Sometimes it'll be about the same, but I definitely read the
names of Characters differently when I read Harry Potter in French. Mostly just enough
to not break the flow of the language.
Fictional characters are another issue.
Often they don't even have the same name as in the original (I have no idea about Harry
Potter, but one example that springs to mind is Bilbo Baggins, who in German is Bilbo
Beutlin).


This happens in Pratchett books in French too. Most of the characters have bizarre
names made up of normal English words, and these are translated. For example, Granny
Weatherwax becomes Mémé Ciredutemps

EDIT:(Adding things)
eyðimörk wrote:

Elenia wrote:
His surname remains somewhat 'intact' but his forename is changed, and 'da' becomes 'de'.

The latter is not really a name change. "da Vinci" is not any type of name, it simply means "from Vinci", as does "de
Vinci". The French, historically speaking, did love to adapt names though, making it incredibly difficult at times to read
Classical Archaeology in French. But the English are, historically speaking, no better. Horace, Mark Anthony, Plato, Herod,
Homer…


Yes, I know, that's why I said it remains somewhat intact: it's just slightly changed to make it more French. It is changed
from my (English speaking) point of view, as we don't say 'Leonardo from Vinci' but it's neither a major nor a noticeable
change and it keeps the meaning clear - as you can see I forget that da Vinci wasn't originally a surname because the
'from' isn't translated.

Yes, I think it's kind of silly. I understand the reason behind name changes, but if I were writing the history books, I'd
rather make an effort to be truer to the original name.

Edited by Elenia on 22 June 2014 at 11:51am

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dampingwire
Bilingual Triglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
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Speaks: English*, Italian*, French
Studies: Japanese

 
 Message 24 of 39
23 June 2014 at 5:36pm | IP Logged 
Retinend wrote:
Yesterday I had a conversation in Spanish in which Shakespeare's name was
mentioned. The
Spanish person used the Spanish version of the name, which transforms it almost
unrecognisably since both the "sh" and the "ks" are lost to just "s". When I mentioned
him, I completely dropped my Spanish accent and pronounced the name "properly," but is
this the right thing to do? In other words, just because you know the language that a loan
word comes from, is it fine to launch into the accent of that language for those specific
syllables? Is it pretentious?


In your case you had heard the Spanish rendition, so you could have used it.

More interesting, to my mind at least, is when you want to mention Shakespeare in Spanish and
you've never heard it said (in Spanish) before. Or perhaps you want to mention Google or Facebook
orLinkedIn. Or where you were born or live now (assuming that London, Manchester, Birmingham,
Glasgow doesn't cover them). What do you do then?


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