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Accusative marker

  Tags: Grammar
 Language Learning Forum : Philological Room Post Reply
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Alijsh
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Iran
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 Message 9 of 22
11 October 2006 at 3:10pm | IP Logged 
Chung wrote:
EDIT: I just checked out the articles in Wikipedia, and Farsi has a few features that remind me of Uralic and Altaic languages (suffixes, no grammatical gender) and others that remind me of eastern Indo-European languages (prepositions, verbal aspect)


I have a topic for it at [Philological Room : What Persian shares]
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Chung
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 Message 10 of 22
11 October 2006 at 3:36pm | IP Logged 
In Hungarian

két könyv = "two book"
sok könyv = "many book"
néhány könyv = "a few book", "some book"
több könyv = "more book"

Compare Slovak vs. Hungarian:

vel'ká kniha je dobrá = nagy könyv jó = a big book is good.
vel'ké knihy sú dobré = nagy könyvekk = big books are good

kniha je vel'ká = a könyv nagy = the book is big.
knihy sú vel'ké = a könyvek nagyok = the books are big.
dve knihy sú vel'ké = két könyv nagy = two books are big.
sto kníh je vel'ké = száz könyv nagy = 100 books are big.

(Slovak like most Slavonic languages is a little different, since numbers greater than 4 that qualify nouns 1) govern the genitive plural, 2) but then lead to verbal conjugations in the 3rd person neuter singular!)

In any case, adjectives in Slovak must conform to the noun's case and number. In Hungarian, adjectives that are used as predicates (2nd set of examples) must conform to the number of the nouns. It seems redundant to Hungarians if the noun would be plural when the qualifier is already plural. But this rule of "non-redundancy" doesn't apply in every case.

Edited by Chung on 11 October 2006 at 3:58pm

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Alijsh
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 Message 11 of 22
11 October 2006 at 11:18pm | IP Logged 
Thank you very much!

In Persian, we say:

one/two/three... book (the number refers plurality)

this books vs. this two book (we have just this and that as demonstrative adj. so the noun denotes plurality)

all books (all is indefinite so book comes in plural)








Edited by Alijsh on 11 October 2006 at 11:24pm

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Andy E
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 Message 12 of 22
12 October 2006 at 1:54am | IP Logged 
Alijsh wrote:
Anyway, I don't see any need to further discuss on this very case because as I already wrote, râ is Persian and doesn't come from any other language.


I disagree. The point about language convergence - and it is not limited to languages of the same family is that the feature may be borrowed not the marker itself. In other words, we are not talking about a loanword here.

Granted, as it also appears in Middle Persian then Turkish is not going to be the reason it appears in modern Persian.

Andy.



Edited by Andy E on 12 October 2006 at 2:01am

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Alijsh
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 Message 13 of 22
12 October 2006 at 3:05am | IP Logged 
Andy E wrote:
I disagree. The point about language convergence - and it is not limited to languages of the same family is that the feature may be borrowed not the marker itself. In other words, we are not talking about a loanword here.


I didn't have any information about it yet I thought it must not be seen in languages of different family. That's why I use "suppose" in the later post.

So it's seen, thanks for bringing me out of mistake.

If you are interested in, I have found the origin of . In old Persian râdiy was used to talk about reason, cause etc. râdiy is locative form of râd that has become in Middle Persian.

Edited by Alijsh on 12 October 2006 at 3:58am

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alexptrans
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 Message 14 of 22
12 October 2006 at 6:28am | IP Logged 
There is an accusative marker in Hebrew as well: "et". What is interesting is that this accusative marker is only used with definite nouns, for example:

Raiti delet
I saw a door

Raiti et hadelet
I saw the door ("ha" is the definite article)

I wonder if any other language makes such a distinction between definite/indefinite accusatives.

Edited by alexptrans on 12 October 2006 at 6:29am

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alexptrans
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 Message 15 of 22
12 October 2006 at 6:34am | IP Logged 
Grammatical features may be borrowed between languages from different families. For example, the Turkish profession marker çı or çi (balık=fish, balıkçı=fisherman) also appears in spoken Arabic (hudarji=grocer, bustaji=mailman, etc).
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Zorndyke
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 Message 16 of 22
12 October 2006 at 7:20am | IP Logged 
Quote:

What is interesting is that this accusative marker is only used with definite nouns, for example:

[...]

I wonder if any other language makes such a distinction between definite/indefinite accusatives.

I know such a language: Persian ;-)

Edited by Zorndyke on 12 October 2006 at 7:21am



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