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s_allard Triglot Senior Member Canada Joined 5431 days ago 2704 posts - 5425 votes Speaks: French*, English, Spanish Studies: Polish
| Message 49 of 70 30 December 2013 at 7:48pm | IP Logged |
mrwarper wrote:
s_allard wrote:
1. Why do native speakers eventually, and at an early age, achieve total mastery of grammatical gender?
2, Why do adult foreign learners achieve highly variable rates of success at mastering grammatical gender?
The answer to question 1 is pretty simple: that's what being a native speaker means. |
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But question 1 is improper, because that isn't true (for all languages at the very least): I don't know about German or French, but Spanish has a comparatively simplified gender system and I know for a fact that *total* mastery of it is rarely achieved. I like thinking I hover about most speakers in my command of my native language, and yet I confess I occasionally make mistakes with genders. I even have such mistakes in books in print. You seem to agree with me on this further on in another post, though.
And the reason why almost all natives do considerably better than nearly all adult foreign speakers regarding genders (but I think we could refer to any language sub-system for that matter) is because the process is considerably different for adults and children, and the exact implications or details of this difference are the key to many if not most of the debates we have here, so I'd leave this aside now, but you rise a very interesting point regarding it in this other post:
s_allard wrote:
[...] what got me thinking was the fact that le texte in French is masculine just as der Text is in German. I suspect, along the lines of what Bakunin has alluded to, that speakers do not think in terms of gender (or case) at all. These may be concepts used in the teaching of the language. For native speakers, they are just grammatical constraints.
[...]
Proponents of this reform point to Spanish that gets along perfectly without these useless complications and to the fact that most native speakers make mistakes, i.e. the spontaneously use the simplified form. |
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So, you agree even natives may make mistakes with gender stuff.
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My choice of "total mastery" may not have been the best wording here. I didn't mean that native speakers never make mistakes. What I meant is that native speakers have a total command of how the system works. That does not exclude "slips" of the tongue that are usually corrected immediately. For example, I would think that not one native French speaker would say le voiture nor would any native speaker of Spanish say el comida without quickly correcting themselves.
On the other hand, there may be regional differences as in le job in France but la job in Quebec and words where there is shifting or undecided usage.
And there are certainly situations where uneducated speakers may use a form that is not that of the formal language learned in schools. Or, as is the case in the French examples I discussed, many people do not respect the rules of prescribed academic French.
But all of this does not change the fact that native speakers have an overall mastery of the system that is a far cry from what most foreigners achieve. And, above all, do not make the same kinds of mistakes.
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| lingoleng Senior Member Germany Joined 5299 days ago 605 posts - 1290 votes
| Message 50 of 70 30 December 2013 at 8:01pm | IP Logged |
Papashaw1 wrote:
The annoyances are much fewer in dialectal German. |
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Which German dialect do you know?
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| s_allard Triglot Senior Member Canada Joined 5431 days ago 2704 posts - 5425 votes Speaks: French*, English, Spanish Studies: Polish
| Message 51 of 70 30 December 2013 at 8:07pm | IP Logged |
Papashaw1 wrote:
To S_allard
I don't see how it is really difficult other than a redundant rule. The relative pronoun must agree in case and gender
in German, and I don't know what you think but to make the word "vues" or "faites" is a smaller hassle than German
choosing weak or strong inflection. Yes there are irregularities, but the standard is -e, -es, or -s or n/a and
remembering to change the ending of an adjective or participle can't be so big. Maybe knowing when to or not do
it is hard but the regular adjective and article agreement endings in French can be memorized in one minute. Not
German's.
I don't speak a lick of Spanish but looking at the wikipedia article a year ago for a minute, I could remember the
articles and inflection. El, la, los, las, un, una, unos, unas. amigo, amiga, amigos, amigas. No strong or weak
inflection changes and irregular plurals throwing off the rhythm (Los altos amigos) vs (Die grossen Kinder)
It took me a week to get any feel for the inflection pattern in German.
English has a rule on whether a verb is followed by a gerund or infinitive, this doesn't cause problems.
Should we abolish that? |
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I have no doubt that the grammatical gender system of French is probably less complicated than that of German. This I said myself. But this does not change the fact that all learners of French, even German speakers, find grammatical gender in French difficult.
As for proposals to abolish the rules governing the past participles in French, this may seem to not be a big hassle compared to German but there one must remember that there are all sorts of more complex situations where users have to stop and think when writing. I remember reading statistics to the effect that just eliminating the part participle agreement rule would eliminate about half or a least a good number of the so-called mistakes in French exam essays.
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| Papashaw1 Newbie Australia Joined 4032 days ago 30 posts - 35 votes
| Message 52 of 70 30 December 2013 at 9:38pm | IP Logged |
lingoleng wrote:
Papashaw1 wrote:
The annoyances are much fewer in dialectal German. |
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Which German dialect do you know? |
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They can be excused as dialects, but standard lingua francas....
The absence of the preterite and genitive is what I mainly mean.
I just have such a hard time understand why such a synthetic language like German has such complex word order
and prepositional usage combined with cases used with said prepositions. Why the plurals are so irregular and the
usage of mixed, strong, and weak inflection. And if there are irregular plural usage and just as many rules in
German dialects. Well I guess they are superhuman for bearing such a language that has said features. I guess
every other member of the Germanic family except Faroese and Icelandic is not intelligent enough.
Chinese is uninflecting but it looks to me as if everything analytical about it is outdone in difficulty inGerman. So
German is Analytical and Synthetic without the non features of both! This is throwing a pebble in the idea of
languages going
in inflectional cycles for me.
Edited by Papashaw1 on 30 December 2013 at 10:12pm
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| lingoleng Senior Member Germany Joined 5299 days ago 605 posts - 1290 votes
| Message 53 of 70 30 December 2013 at 9:58pm | IP Logged |
Papashaw1 wrote:
This is throwing a pebble in the idea of languages going in inflectional cycles for me. |
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There are far too many rigid preconceptions in what you think to "know" about language(s). German is "heavily" synthetic, prepositions should not need cases, and so on ... Better learn about how it really is instead of relying on some too easy ideas about how it should be. Once you know more, things will get better. And you'll be less inclined to make premature guesses about supposed prescriptivism, "laws" of how languages develop and probably some other things.
Edited by lingoleng on 30 December 2013 at 10:02pm
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| Papashaw1 Newbie Australia Joined 4032 days ago 30 posts - 35 votes
| Message 54 of 70 30 December 2013 at 10:11pm | IP Logged |
Very well, I only meant German is relatively synthetic when compared to some. I never said any of those things
were strange for a language to have, but it iss strange to have nearly so many of them at once.
Why exactly have the plurals been so irregular though? What led to the plurals of other languages regularizing and
not German?
As for the Dialects, I looked in to them, you have to admit, some of them are a bit smoother in some ways.
Edited by Papashaw1 on 30 December 2013 at 10:15pm
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| daegga Tetraglot Senior Member Austria lang-8.com/553301 Joined 4522 days ago 1076 posts - 1792 votes Speaks: German*, EnglishC2, Swedish, Norwegian Studies: Danish, French, Finnish, Icelandic
| Message 55 of 70 30 December 2013 at 10:19pm | IP Logged |
Papashaw1 wrote:
Why exactly have the plurals been so irregular though? What led to the plurals of other
languages regularizing and
not German? |
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What do you mean with irregular plurals? There are a bunch of noun classes, Proto-
Germanic had more and it's worse in Icelandic. Even the Scandinavian languages have
several noun classes.
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| Chung Diglot Senior Member Joined 7157 days ago 4228 posts - 8259 votes 20 sounds Speaks: English*, French Studies: Polish, Slovak, Uzbek, Turkish, Korean, Finnish
| Message 56 of 70 30 December 2013 at 11:17pm | IP Logged |
Indeed. Sometimes what look like irregularities in the modern language (and frustration for learners and some native speakers) are just expressions of what was a more elaborate pattern that the speech community for one reason or another stopped using.
Many of the irregularities in Slavonic languages (especially apparent when comparing even a few of them) are similarly caused either by melding what were once vigorous noun classes in Proto-Slavonic, and/or reinterpretation by native speakers in response to instances of distinctions such as dual or vocative become used less as time elpased (eventually to the point of irrelevance or nothing in many of these languages today).
Papashaw1, check out the article for Proto-Germanic to get a sense of what daegga and I mean. You seem particularly keen to insinuate that modern German is somehow unjustifiably complicated (as if some malevolent being decreed it). There were more distinctions in the past, but arguably it was somewhat manageable because one could get a sense of which set of endings to use by already knowing which vowel or vowel-consonant/consonant-vowel pair constituted the stem's final syllable.
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