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Critical Period Hypothesis

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maxb
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 Message 9 of 60
16 July 2005 at 3:29pm | IP Logged 
Many people believe (or used to believe) that there is a critical age after which learning a language with native like accent becomes impossible or at least very difficult.
If I remember correctly some researchers say that after puberty you lose the ability to learn a language with perfect accent. What I would like to know is why this is.
What happens after a certain age that makes it so hard to learn perfect pronunciation in a foreign language? I have retained the ability to mimick accents and foreign languages to a certain degree. But this I think is very much due to the fact that I have played the piano and studied music since I was 13. However many people who haven't studied music seem to have a very hard time picking up the pronunciation of foreign languages. So what happens with our ears when we go past a certain age?
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maxb
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 Message 10 of 60
16 July 2005 at 4:38pm | IP Logged 
Ardaschir wrote:
It is a simple fact that a language aquired before puberty will be spoken with native accent and intonation, while a language learned after puberty will always bear some traces of the speaker's first language speech rhythms.


Does anonye know what reason for this is? Do the ears change in some way after puberty?

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Raistlin Majere
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 Message 11 of 60
16 July 2005 at 5:36pm | IP Logged 
It is the brain that changes.
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ElComadreja
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 Message 12 of 60
16 July 2005 at 6:41pm | IP Logged 
I think it would be interesting if we could post "hard to distinguish" sound clips. Put them in the languages profiles or something.
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Raistlin Majere
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 Message 13 of 60
16 July 2005 at 7:19pm | IP Logged 
Here is one thing about the Critical Period Hypothesis that I don't understand. If new sounds and languages are best learnt at that age, why can't some children which have been raised in countries with rolled rs languages roll their "r"s even if it's their native language?
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braveb
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 Message 14 of 60
16 July 2005 at 8:13pm | IP Logged 
Raistlin Majere, what happens to them? Wouldn't the meaning of the the sentence totally change if the R isn't rolled? What percentage can't roll their Rs? Less in 1?
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Raistlin Majere
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 Message 15 of 60
17 July 2005 at 5:10am | IP Logged 
Of course it wouldn't change much, but even if it was only a 1 per cent that can't roll their Rs, it would prove that this hypothesis is not universal.

Edited by Raistlin Majere on 17 July 2005 at 5:10am

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maxb
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 Message 16 of 60
17 July 2005 at 9:35am | IP Logged 
ElComadreja wrote:
I think it would be interesting if we could post "hard to distinguish" sound clips. Put them in the languages profiles or something.


Yeah, I would, for instance, very much like to hear the different Korean sounds which Ardaschir says are impossible for a non-native speaker to tell apart.


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